LABOUR WELFARE- PAGE 4
LABOUR WELFARE/ PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT/ INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS/ LABOUR AND SOCIAL WELFARE/ HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT MCQs
1. Match the following:
Thinker Principles
a. Mary Parker Follett i. Co-ordination
b. Henry Fayol ii. Elements of Management
c. F.W. Taylor iii. Scientific methods
d. Gilbreth and Taylor iv. Quantitative measurement
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iv ii i iii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: A
2. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of planning?
(A) It deals with future
(B) It involves selection of particular course of action
(C) It is pervasive
(D) It is not strategic
Ans: D
3. Premature evaluation is a type of
(A) semantic barrier
(B) psychological barrier
(C) organisational barrier
(D) personal barrier
Ans: B
4. Which of the following is not a feature of systems approach?
(A) A system is a combination of parts
(B) Parts and sub-parts are related to one another
(C) It is not necessary for a system to have a boundary
(D) System transforms inputs into outputs
Ans: C
5. Which of the following organisations is a two-dimensional structure?
(A) Functional structure
(B) Matrix structure
(C) Line structure
(D) Divisional structure
Ans: B
6. Job description includes information about
(A) Job responsibilities, duties and working conditions.
(B) Job responsibilities, duties and worth in terms of wage and salary.
(C) Job responsibilities and qualifications for performance.
(D) Job responsibilities, duties and qualifications for performance.
Ans: A
7. Differentiation between line and staff functions is necessary because it helps in
(A) providing specialized services.
(B) maintaining adequate checks and balances.
(C) maintaining accountability.
(D) All the above.
Ans: D
8. Which of the following refers to analysis of handwriting to determine writer’s basic personality traits?
(A) Kinesics
(B) Graphology
(C) Polygraphy
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans: B
9. The five basic features of Scanlon plan of incentive payment are
(A) control, individuality, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.
(B) cooperation, identity, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.
(C) control, individuality, commitment, involvement , and sharing of benefits.
(D) cooperation, identity, control, involvement and sharing of profits.
Ans: B
10. Which of the following is a process of systematically identifying, assessing and developing organisational leadership to enhance performance?
(A) Manpower planning
(B) Career planning
(C) Succession planning
(D) Human Resource planning
Ans: C
11. Who is the profounder of the socio-psychological approach to Human Resource Development?
(A) T.W. Schultz
(B) Lorraine Corner
(C) Lim Teck Ghee
(D) David McClelland
Ans: D
12. Read the following statements on HRD need analysis. Identify the one which is not true:
(A) HRD needs can be identified at strategic, organisational, operational, task and person levels
(B) HRD needs can be diagnostic, analytic, compliance oriented and proactive
(C) Competency mapping, performance appraisal and clarity of career paths identify HRD needs at task level only
(D) Task related KSA analysis and training need analysis are integral part of HRD need analysis
Ans: C
13. Assertion (A): Performance Appraisal cannot be error free and unbiased.
Reason (R): The Appraisal Methods are covertly influenced by human judgement which may be vitiated by inter-personal discriminatory impulses.
(A) Assertion (A) is right, Reason (R) is wrong.
(B) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is right.
(C) Reason (R) does not subscribe to the Assertion (A).
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are right, and Reason (R) validate Assertion (A).
Ans: D
14. Match the following theories of career planning with their propagators:
Theories of Career Planning Propagators
a. Career Anchor Model i. John Holland
b. Career Path Model ii. D.T. Hall
c. Career Choice Model iii. Edgar Schien
d. A Career Stages Model iv. Mondy, Noe and Premeanx
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: C
15. When Human Relations training is given to managers the method adopted is:
(A) In-Basket Exercise
(B) Role-play method
(C) Managerial Grid Training
(D) Sensitivity Training
Ans: D
16. When team-building can be attempted by creating artificial teams in which people get opportunity to experiment and learn from their behaviour in a less threatening context, it is based on:
(A) Behaviour Modification Approach
(B) Action Research Approach
(C) Simulation Approach
(D) Team Role Approach
Ans: C
17. Match the Themes with the respective approaches:
Approaches Themes
a. Sociotechnical system approach i. Appropriate managerial behaviour depends on elements of the situation
b. Democratic approach ii. employees’ attitudes influence their perception of work and their work experiences shape their attitudes
c. Contingency approach iii. Technology greatly influences organisational culture and structure which influence the attitude towards work.
d. Interactional approach iv. Involvement and empowerment of workers improve productivity
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: C
18. Who has extended the Vroom’s Expectancy Theory of Motivation by suggesting that motivation is not equal to satisfaction and performance and by depicting what happens after performance?
(A) Harold Kelly
(B) Edward Tolman
(C) Alderfer
(D) Porter and Lawler
Ans: D
19. Which of the following is an invisible part but a powerful template that shapes, what happens at the workplace?
(A) Organisational culture
(B) Organisational climate
(C) Organisational dynamics
(D) Organisational structure
Ans: A
20. Match the following:
Needs Refers to
a. Intrinsic i. Recognition by boss
b. Extrinsic ii. Regular salary
c. Expressed iii. Self initiative
d. Wanted iv.Expecting others to initiate
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: C
21. The trusteeship approach to industrial relations was advocated by:
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Max Weber
(C) Allan Flanders
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: D
22. Which of the following is a machinery for the settlement of Industrial Disputes in India?
(A) National Commission on Labour
(B) Wage Board
(C) Industrial Tribunal
(D) Standing Labour Committee
Ans: C
23. In which year, the International Institute of Labour studies was established?
(A) 1919
(B) 1926
(C) 1950
(D) 1960
Ans: D
24. Match the following Acts/Code with the provisions:
Acts/Code Provision
a. The Trade Unions Act i. Retrenched and protected workmen
b. The code of Discipline ii. Collection of political forms
c. The Industrial Disputes Act iii. Recognition of Unions
d. The Model standing orders under the Central Industrial Employment (standing orders) Rules. iv. Disciplinary action for misconduct
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: A
25. Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier institutional structure’ of Industrial Relations?
(A) John T. Dunlop
(B) Allan Flanders
(C) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie
(D) Roy Adam
Ans: C
26. Which of the following was the first trade union organized in India?
(A) Madras Labour Union
(B) Textile Labour Association
(C) Bombay Millhands Association
(D) Kamgar Hitvardhak Sabha
Ans: A
27. Functional types of trade unions were advocated by
(A) Selig Perlman
(B) Robert F. Hoxie
(C) G.D.H. Cole
(D) S.H. Slitcher
Ans: B
28. The Inter-Union Code of Conduct was evolved in the year
(A) 1956
(B) 1957
(C) 1958
(D) 1959
Ans: C
29. Match the following:
Type of the Union Characteristics
a. Craft Union i. Union of Unions
b. General Union ii. Wage earners in a particular enterprise
c. Industrial Union iii. Any wage earner
d. Federation iv. Workers engaged in similar nature of work
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iv ii iii i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) ii iii i iv
Ans: A
30. Match the following:
National Labour Federations Year of Formation
a. All India Trade Union Congress i. 1948
b. Indian National Trade Union Congress ii. 1970
c. Hind Mazdoor Sabha iii. 1920
d. Centre of Indian Trade Unions iv. 1947
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii iv i
(B) iii i iv ii
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) ii i iii iv
Ans: C
31. Which of the following is not a type of Labour Legislation?
(A) Regulative Legislation
(B) Protective Legislation
(C) Uniformity Legislation
(D) Social Security Legislation
Ans: C
32. The first Factory Legislation in India was enacted in
(A) 1860
(B) 1881
(C) 1882
(D) 1891
Ans: B
33. Which of the following benefits have not been provided under the Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948?
(A) Sickness Benefit
(B) Unemployment Allowance
(C) Children’s’ Allowance
(D) Disablement Benefit
Ans: C
34. Before the enactment of Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923, workers suffering a personal injury in course of employment claimed damages under
(A) Economic Law
(B) Social Law
(C) Common Law
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
35. The Royal Commission on Labour examined which of the two States’ Maternity Benefit Acts and recommended enactment of similar laws all over the country?
(A) Bombay and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Madras and Mysore
(C) Bihar and Bengal
(D) Punjab and Assam
Ans: A
36. What will be the minimum number of workers required for organizing a trade union for registration according to the latest amendment under the Trade Unions’ Act, 1926?
(A) 7 workers
(B) 10 %
(C) 100
(D) 10% or 100 or 7
Ans: D
37. The minimum subscription rate for members of trade unions of rural workers shall not be less than
(A) Rs. 12 per annum
(B) Rs. 3 per annum
(C) Rs. 1 per annum
(D) No such provision
Ans: C
38. Which of the following statements about the definition of industry as given in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not right?
(A) It means any business, trade, undertaking, manufacture or calling of employers.
(B) It includes any calling, service, employment, handicraft or industrial occupation or avocation of workmen.
(C) This definition has been revised in 1982 in a leading case of 1978.
(D) The revised definition has been implemented after due notification.
Ans: D
39. ‘First come last go and last come first go’ is the principle of
(A) Lay-off
(B) Closure
(C) Retrenchment
(D) Dismissal
Ans: C
40. Which of the following statements isnot true regarding Industrial Employment(Standing Orders) Act, 1946?
(A) Within 6 months from the date of application of the Act, the employer shall submit to the Certifying Officer 5 copies of the draft standing orders.
(B) There is a schedule which sets out the matters to be incorporated in the standing orders.
(C) There is no provision to refer the draft standing orders to the Unions/Workmen by the Certifying Officer.
(D) Certifying Officers and appellate authorities shall have powers of Civil Courts.
Ans: C
41. Which of the following statements with regard to labour welfare is not correct?
(A) Welfare is a social concept.
(B) Welfare is a relative concept.
(C) Welfare is a positive concept.
(D) Welfare is an absolute concept.
Ans: D
42. Which of the following is not an intramural welfare facility?
(A) Canteen
(B) Workmen safety measures
(C) Housing facility
(D) Drinking water facility
Ans: C
43. Match the following:
Principles of Welfare Work Theme
a. Principle of Coordination or Integration i. When welfare is given for a felt need at the opportune moment.
b. Principle of Association ii. When welfare is treated as a total concept and not a piece-meal programme.
c. Principle of Accountability iii. Work with individual is motto of this principle.
d. Principle of Timeliness iv. Welfare is to be satisfactorily utilized is the motto of this principle.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv ii i iii
Ans: B
44. “The factory and industrial workplaces provide ample opportunities for owners and managers of capital to exploit workers in an unfair manner. This cannot be allowed to continue” is the philosophy of which theory of Labour Welfare?
(A) Placating Theory
(B) Functional Theory
(C) Policing Theory
(D) Religious Theory
Ans: C
45. “A place for everything and everything in its place” is the principle that governs
(A) Placement
(B) Housekeeping
(C) Office keeping
(D) Floor Management
Ans: B
46. Which of the following is not a peculiarity of labour market?
(A) Labour market is normally local in nature.
(B) The number of buyers is less than the number of sellers.
(C) Labour is less mobile.
(D) Worker can sell not only his own labour but also the labour of his fellow workers.
Ans: D
47. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Indian labour force?
(A) High rate of absenteeism and labour turnover
(B) Low degree of unionization rate
(C) Lack of mobility
(D) Homogeneous in nature
Ans: D
48. Which of the following is not a type of wage differentials?
(A) Occupational
(B) Geographical
(C) Industrial
(D) Social
Ans: D
49. The Concepts of Wages like Minimum Wage, Fair Wage and Living Wages were given by
(A) Royal Commission on Labour
(B) First National Commission on Labour
(C) Committee on Fair Wages
(D) Adarkar Committee
Ans: C
50. Which of the following theories of wages was propounded by Karl Marx?
(A) Subsistence Theory
(B) Surplus Value Theory
(C) Wage Fund Theory
(D) Residual Claimant Theory
Ans: B
Thinker Principles
a. Mary Parker Follett i. Co-ordination
b. Henry Fayol ii. Elements of Management
c. F.W. Taylor iii. Scientific methods
d. Gilbreth and Taylor iv. Quantitative measurement
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iv ii i iii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: A
2. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of planning?
(A) It deals with future
(B) It involves selection of particular course of action
(C) It is pervasive
(D) It is not strategic
Ans: D
3. Premature evaluation is a type of
(A) semantic barrier
(B) psychological barrier
(C) organisational barrier
(D) personal barrier
Ans: B
4. Which of the following is not a feature of systems approach?
(A) A system is a combination of parts
(B) Parts and sub-parts are related to one another
(C) It is not necessary for a system to have a boundary
(D) System transforms inputs into outputs
Ans: C
5. Which of the following organisations is a two-dimensional structure?
(A) Functional structure
(B) Matrix structure
(C) Line structure
(D) Divisional structure
Ans: B
6. Job description includes information about
(A) Job responsibilities, duties and working conditions.
(B) Job responsibilities, duties and worth in terms of wage and salary.
(C) Job responsibilities and qualifications for performance.
(D) Job responsibilities, duties and qualifications for performance.
Ans: A
7. Differentiation between line and staff functions is necessary because it helps in
(A) providing specialized services.
(B) maintaining adequate checks and balances.
(C) maintaining accountability.
(D) All the above.
Ans: D
8. Which of the following refers to analysis of handwriting to determine writer’s basic personality traits?
(A) Kinesics
(B) Graphology
(C) Polygraphy
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans: B
9. The five basic features of Scanlon plan of incentive payment are
(A) control, individuality, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.
(B) cooperation, identity, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.
(C) control, individuality, commitment, involvement , and sharing of benefits.
(D) cooperation, identity, control, involvement and sharing of profits.
Ans: B
10. Which of the following is a process of systematically identifying, assessing and developing organisational leadership to enhance performance?
(A) Manpower planning
(B) Career planning
(C) Succession planning
(D) Human Resource planning
Ans: C
11. Who is the profounder of the socio-psychological approach to Human Resource Development?
(A) T.W. Schultz
(B) Lorraine Corner
(C) Lim Teck Ghee
(D) David McClelland
Ans: D
12. Read the following statements on HRD need analysis. Identify the one which is not true:
(A) HRD needs can be identified at strategic, organisational, operational, task and person levels
(B) HRD needs can be diagnostic, analytic, compliance oriented and proactive
(C) Competency mapping, performance appraisal and clarity of career paths identify HRD needs at task level only
(D) Task related KSA analysis and training need analysis are integral part of HRD need analysis
Ans: C
13. Assertion (A): Performance Appraisal cannot be error free and unbiased.
Reason (R): The Appraisal Methods are covertly influenced by human judgement which may be vitiated by inter-personal discriminatory impulses.
(A) Assertion (A) is right, Reason (R) is wrong.
(B) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is right.
(C) Reason (R) does not subscribe to the Assertion (A).
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are right, and Reason (R) validate Assertion (A).
Ans: D
14. Match the following theories of career planning with their propagators:
Theories of Career Planning Propagators
a. Career Anchor Model i. John Holland
b. Career Path Model ii. D.T. Hall
c. Career Choice Model iii. Edgar Schien
d. A Career Stages Model iv. Mondy, Noe and Premeanx
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: C
15. When Human Relations training is given to managers the method adopted is:
(A) In-Basket Exercise
(B) Role-play method
(C) Managerial Grid Training
(D) Sensitivity Training
Ans: D
16. When team-building can be attempted by creating artificial teams in which people get opportunity to experiment and learn from their behaviour in a less threatening context, it is based on:
(A) Behaviour Modification Approach
(B) Action Research Approach
(C) Simulation Approach
(D) Team Role Approach
Ans: C
17. Match the Themes with the respective approaches:
Approaches Themes
a. Sociotechnical system approach i. Appropriate managerial behaviour depends on elements of the situation
b. Democratic approach ii. employees’ attitudes influence their perception of work and their work experiences shape their attitudes
c. Contingency approach iii. Technology greatly influences organisational culture and structure which influence the attitude towards work.
d. Interactional approach iv. Involvement and empowerment of workers improve productivity
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: C
18. Who has extended the Vroom’s Expectancy Theory of Motivation by suggesting that motivation is not equal to satisfaction and performance and by depicting what happens after performance?
(A) Harold Kelly
(B) Edward Tolman
(C) Alderfer
(D) Porter and Lawler
Ans: D
19. Which of the following is an invisible part but a powerful template that shapes, what happens at the workplace?
(A) Organisational culture
(B) Organisational climate
(C) Organisational dynamics
(D) Organisational structure
Ans: A
20. Match the following:
Needs Refers to
a. Intrinsic i. Recognition by boss
b. Extrinsic ii. Regular salary
c. Expressed iii. Self initiative
d. Wanted iv.Expecting others to initiate
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: C
21. The trusteeship approach to industrial relations was advocated by:
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Max Weber
(C) Allan Flanders
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: D
22. Which of the following is a machinery for the settlement of Industrial Disputes in India?
(A) National Commission on Labour
(B) Wage Board
(C) Industrial Tribunal
(D) Standing Labour Committee
Ans: C
23. In which year, the International Institute of Labour studies was established?
(A) 1919
(B) 1926
(C) 1950
(D) 1960
Ans: D
24. Match the following Acts/Code with the provisions:
Acts/Code Provision
a. The Trade Unions Act i. Retrenched and protected workmen
b. The code of Discipline ii. Collection of political forms
c. The Industrial Disputes Act iii. Recognition of Unions
d. The Model standing orders under the Central Industrial Employment (standing orders) Rules. iv. Disciplinary action for misconduct
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: A
25. Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier institutional structure’ of Industrial Relations?
(A) John T. Dunlop
(B) Allan Flanders
(C) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie
(D) Roy Adam
Ans: C
26. Which of the following was the first trade union organized in India?
(A) Madras Labour Union
(B) Textile Labour Association
(C) Bombay Millhands Association
(D) Kamgar Hitvardhak Sabha
Ans: A
27. Functional types of trade unions were advocated by
(A) Selig Perlman
(B) Robert F. Hoxie
(C) G.D.H. Cole
(D) S.H. Slitcher
Ans: B
28. The Inter-Union Code of Conduct was evolved in the year
(A) 1956
(B) 1957
(C) 1958
(D) 1959
Ans: C
29. Match the following:
Type of the Union Characteristics
a. Craft Union i. Union of Unions
b. General Union ii. Wage earners in a particular enterprise
c. Industrial Union iii. Any wage earner
d. Federation iv. Workers engaged in similar nature of work
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iv ii iii i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) ii iii i iv
Ans: A
30. Match the following:
National Labour Federations Year of Formation
a. All India Trade Union Congress i. 1948
b. Indian National Trade Union Congress ii. 1970
c. Hind Mazdoor Sabha iii. 1920
d. Centre of Indian Trade Unions iv. 1947
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii iv i
(B) iii i iv ii
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) ii i iii iv
Ans: C
31. Which of the following is not a type of Labour Legislation?
(A) Regulative Legislation
(B) Protective Legislation
(C) Uniformity Legislation
(D) Social Security Legislation
Ans: C
32. The first Factory Legislation in India was enacted in
(A) 1860
(B) 1881
(C) 1882
(D) 1891
Ans: B
33. Which of the following benefits have not been provided under the Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948?
(A) Sickness Benefit
(B) Unemployment Allowance
(C) Children’s’ Allowance
(D) Disablement Benefit
Ans: C
34. Before the enactment of Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923, workers suffering a personal injury in course of employment claimed damages under
(A) Economic Law
(B) Social Law
(C) Common Law
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
35. The Royal Commission on Labour examined which of the two States’ Maternity Benefit Acts and recommended enactment of similar laws all over the country?
(A) Bombay and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Madras and Mysore
(C) Bihar and Bengal
(D) Punjab and Assam
Ans: A
36. What will be the minimum number of workers required for organizing a trade union for registration according to the latest amendment under the Trade Unions’ Act, 1926?
(A) 7 workers
(B) 10 %
(C) 100
(D) 10% or 100 or 7
Ans: D
37. The minimum subscription rate for members of trade unions of rural workers shall not be less than
(A) Rs. 12 per annum
(B) Rs. 3 per annum
(C) Rs. 1 per annum
(D) No such provision
Ans: C
38. Which of the following statements about the definition of industry as given in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not right?
(A) It means any business, trade, undertaking, manufacture or calling of employers.
(B) It includes any calling, service, employment, handicraft or industrial occupation or avocation of workmen.
(C) This definition has been revised in 1982 in a leading case of 1978.
(D) The revised definition has been implemented after due notification.
Ans: D
39. ‘First come last go and last come first go’ is the principle of
(A) Lay-off
(B) Closure
(C) Retrenchment
(D) Dismissal
Ans: C
40. Which of the following statements isnot true regarding Industrial Employment(Standing Orders) Act, 1946?
(A) Within 6 months from the date of application of the Act, the employer shall submit to the Certifying Officer 5 copies of the draft standing orders.
(B) There is a schedule which sets out the matters to be incorporated in the standing orders.
(C) There is no provision to refer the draft standing orders to the Unions/Workmen by the Certifying Officer.
(D) Certifying Officers and appellate authorities shall have powers of Civil Courts.
Ans: C
41. Which of the following statements with regard to labour welfare is not correct?
(A) Welfare is a social concept.
(B) Welfare is a relative concept.
(C) Welfare is a positive concept.
(D) Welfare is an absolute concept.
Ans: D
42. Which of the following is not an intramural welfare facility?
(A) Canteen
(B) Workmen safety measures
(C) Housing facility
(D) Drinking water facility
Ans: C
43. Match the following:
Principles of Welfare Work Theme
a. Principle of Coordination or Integration i. When welfare is given for a felt need at the opportune moment.
b. Principle of Association ii. When welfare is treated as a total concept and not a piece-meal programme.
c. Principle of Accountability iii. Work with individual is motto of this principle.
d. Principle of Timeliness iv. Welfare is to be satisfactorily utilized is the motto of this principle.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv ii i iii
Ans: B
44. “The factory and industrial workplaces provide ample opportunities for owners and managers of capital to exploit workers in an unfair manner. This cannot be allowed to continue” is the philosophy of which theory of Labour Welfare?
(A) Placating Theory
(B) Functional Theory
(C) Policing Theory
(D) Religious Theory
Ans: C
45. “A place for everything and everything in its place” is the principle that governs
(A) Placement
(B) Housekeeping
(C) Office keeping
(D) Floor Management
Ans: B
46. Which of the following is not a peculiarity of labour market?
(A) Labour market is normally local in nature.
(B) The number of buyers is less than the number of sellers.
(C) Labour is less mobile.
(D) Worker can sell not only his own labour but also the labour of his fellow workers.
Ans: D
47. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Indian labour force?
(A) High rate of absenteeism and labour turnover
(B) Low degree of unionization rate
(C) Lack of mobility
(D) Homogeneous in nature
Ans: D
48. Which of the following is not a type of wage differentials?
(A) Occupational
(B) Geographical
(C) Industrial
(D) Social
Ans: D
49. The Concepts of Wages like Minimum Wage, Fair Wage and Living Wages were given by
(A) Royal Commission on Labour
(B) First National Commission on Labour
(C) Committee on Fair Wages
(D) Adarkar Committee
Ans: C
50. Which of the following theories of wages was propounded by Karl Marx?
(A) Subsistence Theory
(B) Surplus Value Theory
(C) Wage Fund Theory
(D) Residual Claimant Theory
Ans: B
51. Which one of the following is an example of Golden-Handshake Scheme?
(A) Superannuation Retirement
(B) Voluntary Retirement
(C) Compulsory Retirement
(D) Retirement on account of disablement
Ans: B
52. Which of the following is/are technique(s) of Total Quality Management?
a. Six Sigma
b. Kaizen
c. Just-in-time Management
d. Business Process Reengineering
(A) only a
(B) a and b
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Ans: D
53. Which one of the following contains the phases of organizational development arranged in sequential order?
(A) Entry into the organization, diagnosis, culture building and interventions
(B) Entry into the organization, diagnosis, interventions and culture building
(C) Entry into the organization, culture building, diagnosis and interventions
(D) Entry into the organization, interventions, diagnosis and culture building
Ans: B
54. ‘OCTAPACE’ – the concept for study of organisational climate was developed by
(A) Peter F. Drucker
(B) Peter Segne
(C) Udai Pareek
(D) Dharni P. Sinha
Ans: C
55. Which of the following is/are the root cause(s) of downsizing?
a. mechanisation and modernisation
b. cost cutting methods and effective communication
c. technological advancement and improvement in organisational performance
d. impact of globalisation
(A) only a
(B) a and b
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Ans: D
56. Arrange in a sequence the following Acts in the order of years in which they were enacted from latest to earliest
a. The Mines Act
b. The Plantation Labour Act
c. The Factories Act
d. The Beedi and Cigar Workers (Conditions of Employment) Act
(A) a, b, c, d
(B) b, a, c, d
(C) d, b, a, c
(D) d, a, b, c
Ans: D
57. Which of the following statements is not true, when it is the issue of referring a dispute to a labour court under the Industrial Disputes Act?
(A) If the matter is related to matters specified in the second schedule, the appropriate government may refer it to the labour court.
(B) If the matter is related to the matters specified in the third schedule, the appropriate government may refer it to the labour court, provided the issue does not affect more than one hundred workmen.
(C) If the dispute in relation to which the central government is the appropriate government, it can refer it to the labour court constituted by the state government.
(D) If the matter is related to issue of national importance, the same can be referred to the labour court by the appropriate government.
Ans: D
58. What is/are common to the Factories Act, the Mines Act, and the Plantation Labour Act?
a. They are protective legislations
b. They are social security legislations
c. They are welfare legislations
d. They are wage legislations
(A) only a
(B) only c
(C) a and c
(D) b, c and d
Ans: C
59. Which of the following authorities has the power to prescribe the form of certificate of fitness to work in a factory under the Factories Act?
(A) The certifying surgeon
(B) The owner or occupier of the factory
(C) The Chief Inspector of Factories of the State
(D) The State Government
Ans: D
60. Which of the following statements about the Unorganised Sector Social Security Act, 2008 is not true?
(A) The Act gives a definition of ‘home-based worker’, and it is same as self-employed worker.
(B) It prescribes for making suitable welfare schemes for unorganized workers relating to life and disability cover, health and maternity benefits, and old age protection by the Central Government.
(C) The Act gives separate definitions of ‘unorganized worker’ and ‘wage worker’.
(D) It prescribes for making suitable welfare schemes for unorganized workers relating to provident fund, employee injury benefit, housing, educational schemes for children, skill upgradation of workers only by the State Government.
Ans: A
61. Which state in India was the first to enact a legislation governing migrant workers, which was later repealed by the central Inter-State Migrant Workmen Act in 1979?
(A) Maharastra
(B) Odisha
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: B
62. Which part of the definition of ‘worker’ under the Factories Act is incomplete?
(A) A person employed directly or by or through any agency.
(B) With or without the knowledge of the principal employer.
(C) For remuneration
(D) In the manufacturing process
Ans: C
63. Assertion (A): Provisions of Employees’ compensation Act and Maternity Benefit Act do not apply to all industries.
Reason (R): Employees’ Compensation Act is a comprehensive social security legislation.
(A) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(B) (A) is right, but (R) does not related to the (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are right, and (R) validates the (A).
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: C
64. Which of the following statements about The Employees’ Provident Funds and (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act are true?
a. The Act is not applicable to cooperative societies employing less than 50 persons working with the aid of power.
b. It makes provision for pension scheme, including family pension.
c. There is no wage limit to be covered under the Act.
d. The Act has a provision relating to Employees’ Deposit-linked Insurance Scheme.
(A) a, b and d
(B) a and c
(C) b, c and d
(D) a, c and d
Ans: A
65. Which of the following statements about the Grievance Redressal Machinery given under the Industrial not true?
(A) Every industrial establishment employing 20 or more workmen shall have one or more Grievance Redressal Committee.
(B) Grievance Redressal Committee can resolve any dispute arising in the industrial establishment.
(C) It is a bipartite committee with equal number of members representing the employer and workmen.
(D) There is a 45 days time limit from the date of written application to complete the proceedings.
Ans: B
66. Identify the false statement on ILO.
(A) ILO is a tripartite body.
(B) India was not a founding member of the ILO as it did not get its Independence.
(C) ILO has three organs, namely, the International Conference, the governing body, and the International Labour Office.
(D) ILO passes conventions and recommendations prescribing International Labour Standards.
Ans: B
67. Match the following Conventions of the ILO according to their incorporation in the concerned laws/source of laws in India.
Conventions Laws/Source of Laws
a. Holidays with pay convention (No. 52) i. Indian Constitution
b. Tripartite Constitution (International Standards) Convention (No. 144) ii. Factories Act
c. Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) iii. International
Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment & conditions of service) Act
d. Inspection of Emigrant convention (No. 21) iv. Minimum Wages Act
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: A
68. The Trade Unions Act empowers a trade union to create a General Fund for its administration and maintenance. A trade union purchased shares in the Unit Trust of India to enhance its General Fund Account. Which of the following is not correct as per law?
(A) The trade union can raise its fund by such type of investments.
(B) The trade union can raise its funds by such investments with the permission of appropriate government.
(C) The trade union can raise its fund by such investments with the consent of its general body.
(D) The trade union cannot do so as it is an attempt towards profit making.
Ans: D
69. While working at the construction of a multi-storeyed building of a company, a worker employed by a ‘contractor’, supplied by a ‘sirdar’, faced an accident and became temporarily disabled. For paying compensation to the worker, who shall be held responsible as per law?
(A) The contractor who employed the worker
(B) The sirdar who supplied the worker
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
70. The basic principle underlying the enactment of the Trade Unions Act is:
(A) To protect interests of workers against disregard of human elements in industries.
(B) To regulate the relationship of workers and their organization by regulating the balance of power.
(C) To provide strength to workers to settle the industrial disputes.
(D) To provide security to workers against the occupational hazards.
Ans: B
71. Which of the following contribute(s) as a principle of labour legislation?
a. Principle of International Obligation
b. Principle of Economic Development
c. Principle of Protection and Regulation
d. Principle of Social Justice
(A) c and d
(B) b, c and d
(C) a, b, c and d
(D) a, b, and d
Ans: C
72. For which of the following, the State Legislature has exclusive power to make laws?
(A) Shops and Commercial Establishments
(B) Vocational and Technical Training of Workers
(C) Participation in International Associations
(D) Social Security and Social Assistance
Ans: A
73. Which of the following is not the objective of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Bill proposed by the second National Commission on Labour?
(A) To ensure that no child would be deprived of a future being deprived of education.
(B) to ensure children not to work in situations where they are exploited.
(C) to prohibit child labour in all employments irrespective of their coverage under the existing Act.
(D) To tackle the problem of child labour by ensuring universal education.
Ans: C
74. Which of the following is/are factor(s) for enactment of a legislation regulating payment of remuneration due to workers?
a. Payment in kind
b. Payment in illegal tender
c. Irregular payments
d. Authorised deductions
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b and d
(C) a, b, c and d
(D) b, c and d
Ans: A
75. What is the qualifying service to claim gratuity?
(A) 15 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 5 years
(D) No such prescription
Ans: C
76. Which of the following can be said to be an Industrial Relations body/ machinery in USA?
(A) Ministry of Labour
(B) National Labour Relations Board (NLRB)
(C) National Productivity Council
(D) AF of L & CIO.
Ans: B
77. The Advisory Conciliation and Arbitration Services (ACAS) which was provided under the Industrial Relations Act of 1975 of Great Britain provides for
(A) Conciliation and Arbitration of disputes
(B) Disposal of dispute by collective bargaining
(C) Matter to be taken to adjudication
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
78. ‘Closed shop’ means which of the following?
(A) Joining union first and then employment.
(B) Employment first and joining union later.
(C) Not joining any union after employment.
(D) A shop which is closed.
Ans: A
79. Under which labour legislation in India the provision of check-off has been accepted?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(B) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(C) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(D) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act
Ans: C
80. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. Royal Commission on Labour i. P.B. Gajendra Gadkar
b. Labour Investigation Committee ii. Rege
c. First National Labour Commission iii. Ravindra Verma
d. Second National Labour Commission iv. J.H. Whitley
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) iv iii i ii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: B
81. Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?
(A) Award of Labour Court
(B) Award of Tribunal
(C) Arbitration Award
(D) Consent Award
Ans: D
82. Assertion (A): The policy of tripartitism on which the Indian Industrial Relations System rested, has failed to yield the desired results.
Reason (R): The parties to the tripartite bodies have resorted to conflict measures and adjudication.
Codes:
(A) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(C) (A) is right and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: C
83. Majority of industrial disputes are settled by which of the following machinery in India?
(A) Conciliation Machinery
(B) Arbitration Machinery
(C) Adjudication Machinery
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
84. Which of the following is the meaning of ‘Cooling off’ period in industrial relations?
(A) Workers to have bath after long hours of work with cold water.
(B) Not to be annoyed at the place of work.
(C) To have a proper spirit of implementing agreements.
(D) The period from serving the notice of strike and the date of resorting to a strike in order to think coolly whether the workers should go on a strike or not.
Ans: D
85. Which one of the following is not a subject matter of industrial relations?
(A) Trade Union and Collective Bargaining
(B) Strikes and Lockouts
(C) Unfair Labour Practices
(D) Employee Compensation and Welfare
Ans: D
86. Safety net provision is a part of which of the following?
(A) Accidents prevention andsafety policy
(B) New economic policy
(C) Corporate social responsibility policy
(D) Employee adjustment policy
Ans: B
87. Assertion (A): In the post economic reforms era Indian business houses initially had to take strong decisions in terms of cost cutting measures and human resource rationalization.
Reason (R): Economic reforms opened up markets and allowed foreign direct investment causing the domestic industry to compete on uneven level playing ground.
Codes:
(A) (A) is right, but (R) attributed is wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is right and (R) is attributed is logical.
Ans: D
88. During whose tenure as Prime Minister, the Economic Reforms in India were initiated?
(A) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(D) Dr. P.V. Narasimha Rao
Ans: D
89. Which of the following is not a contributory factor for HR outsourcing?
(A) Strategic Reasons
(B) Financial Reasons
(C) Trade Union Hassels
(D) Competitive Factor
Ans: C
90. Which of the following statements about downsizing is not correct?
(A) Mergers and Acquisitions are responsible for downsizing.
(B) Technical up gradation cannot be attributed as a reason for downsizing.
(C) Downsizing helps in getting rid of deadwood.
(D) Cost-cutting measure is a reason for downsizing.
Ans: B
91. Match the following:
Management Strategies Propounders
a. ‘5’ forces analysis i. Robert S. Kaplan & David P. Norton
b. Business Process Engineering ii. C.K. Prahlad & Gary Hamel
c. Balanced Scorecard iii. Michael Porter
d. Core Competency Model iv. Michael Hammer and James Champy
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
92. Which of the following is a force that acts as stimulant for organizational change?
(A) Nature of the workforce
(B) Technology
(C) Economic Shock
(D) All the above
Ans: D
93. The Japanese 5 ‘S’ model deals with
(A) Housekeeping
(B) Assembly line production
(C) Quality assurance
(D) Cost effective measures
Ans: A
94. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. POSDCORB i. Mary Parker Follette
b. 14 Principles of Management ii. Luther Gullick
c. Integration Theory of Management iii. Peter F. Drucker
d. Management by Objectives iv. Henry Fayol
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii iv i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) iii i iv iii
Ans: C
95. Which of the following training programmes is meant for a new employee?
(A) Sensitivity training
(B) Apprenticeship training
(C) Induction training
(D) In-basket exercise
Ans: C
96. Which of the following statements is not true about benchmarking strategy of TQM?
(A) It is related to the efforts of Kaizen.
(B) It is related to the raising of criteria for selection.
(C) It is raising the performance standards of the organization.
(D) It is a people driven activity.
Ans: B
97. Which of the following is not a type of HRM strategy?
(A) Task focused strategy
(B) Development oriented strategy
(C) Turnaround HRM strategy
(D) Placating HRM strategy
Ans: D
98. Which of the following is not a ‘lab’ in the sensitivity training, also known as Laboratory training?
(A) Stranger lab
(B) Cousin lab
(C) Organizational lab
(D) Family lab
Ans: C
99. Which of the following statements about the recent trends in HRM is not correct?
(A) Employer branding is attempted to be achieved through HRM practices.
(B) Competency mapping is a recent trend in HRM.
(C) Measurement of HR through balanced scorecard has taken shape.
(D) Performance and Knowledge Management are not related to strategic HRM.
Ans: D
100. Which of the following is not a method of dealing with resistance to change?
(A) Education and Communication
(B) Participation
(C) Facilitation and Support
(D) Coercion and Punishment
Ans: D
(A) Superannuation Retirement
(B) Voluntary Retirement
(C) Compulsory Retirement
(D) Retirement on account of disablement
Ans: B
52. Which of the following is/are technique(s) of Total Quality Management?
a. Six Sigma
b. Kaizen
c. Just-in-time Management
d. Business Process Reengineering
(A) only a
(B) a and b
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Ans: D
53. Which one of the following contains the phases of organizational development arranged in sequential order?
(A) Entry into the organization, diagnosis, culture building and interventions
(B) Entry into the organization, diagnosis, interventions and culture building
(C) Entry into the organization, culture building, diagnosis and interventions
(D) Entry into the organization, interventions, diagnosis and culture building
Ans: B
54. ‘OCTAPACE’ – the concept for study of organisational climate was developed by
(A) Peter F. Drucker
(B) Peter Segne
(C) Udai Pareek
(D) Dharni P. Sinha
Ans: C
55. Which of the following is/are the root cause(s) of downsizing?
a. mechanisation and modernisation
b. cost cutting methods and effective communication
c. technological advancement and improvement in organisational performance
d. impact of globalisation
(A) only a
(B) a and b
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Ans: D
56. Arrange in a sequence the following Acts in the order of years in which they were enacted from latest to earliest
a. The Mines Act
b. The Plantation Labour Act
c. The Factories Act
d. The Beedi and Cigar Workers (Conditions of Employment) Act
(A) a, b, c, d
(B) b, a, c, d
(C) d, b, a, c
(D) d, a, b, c
Ans: D
57. Which of the following statements is not true, when it is the issue of referring a dispute to a labour court under the Industrial Disputes Act?
(A) If the matter is related to matters specified in the second schedule, the appropriate government may refer it to the labour court.
(B) If the matter is related to the matters specified in the third schedule, the appropriate government may refer it to the labour court, provided the issue does not affect more than one hundred workmen.
(C) If the dispute in relation to which the central government is the appropriate government, it can refer it to the labour court constituted by the state government.
(D) If the matter is related to issue of national importance, the same can be referred to the labour court by the appropriate government.
Ans: D
58. What is/are common to the Factories Act, the Mines Act, and the Plantation Labour Act?
a. They are protective legislations
b. They are social security legislations
c. They are welfare legislations
d. They are wage legislations
(A) only a
(B) only c
(C) a and c
(D) b, c and d
Ans: C
59. Which of the following authorities has the power to prescribe the form of certificate of fitness to work in a factory under the Factories Act?
(A) The certifying surgeon
(B) The owner or occupier of the factory
(C) The Chief Inspector of Factories of the State
(D) The State Government
Ans: D
60. Which of the following statements about the Unorganised Sector Social Security Act, 2008 is not true?
(A) The Act gives a definition of ‘home-based worker’, and it is same as self-employed worker.
(B) It prescribes for making suitable welfare schemes for unorganized workers relating to life and disability cover, health and maternity benefits, and old age protection by the Central Government.
(C) The Act gives separate definitions of ‘unorganized worker’ and ‘wage worker’.
(D) It prescribes for making suitable welfare schemes for unorganized workers relating to provident fund, employee injury benefit, housing, educational schemes for children, skill upgradation of workers only by the State Government.
Ans: A
61. Which state in India was the first to enact a legislation governing migrant workers, which was later repealed by the central Inter-State Migrant Workmen Act in 1979?
(A) Maharastra
(B) Odisha
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: B
62. Which part of the definition of ‘worker’ under the Factories Act is incomplete?
(A) A person employed directly or by or through any agency.
(B) With or without the knowledge of the principal employer.
(C) For remuneration
(D) In the manufacturing process
Ans: C
63. Assertion (A): Provisions of Employees’ compensation Act and Maternity Benefit Act do not apply to all industries.
Reason (R): Employees’ Compensation Act is a comprehensive social security legislation.
(A) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(B) (A) is right, but (R) does not related to the (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are right, and (R) validates the (A).
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: C
64. Which of the following statements about The Employees’ Provident Funds and (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act are true?
a. The Act is not applicable to cooperative societies employing less than 50 persons working with the aid of power.
b. It makes provision for pension scheme, including family pension.
c. There is no wage limit to be covered under the Act.
d. The Act has a provision relating to Employees’ Deposit-linked Insurance Scheme.
(A) a, b and d
(B) a and c
(C) b, c and d
(D) a, c and d
Ans: A
65. Which of the following statements about the Grievance Redressal Machinery given under the Industrial not true?
(A) Every industrial establishment employing 20 or more workmen shall have one or more Grievance Redressal Committee.
(B) Grievance Redressal Committee can resolve any dispute arising in the industrial establishment.
(C) It is a bipartite committee with equal number of members representing the employer and workmen.
(D) There is a 45 days time limit from the date of written application to complete the proceedings.
Ans: B
66. Identify the false statement on ILO.
(A) ILO is a tripartite body.
(B) India was not a founding member of the ILO as it did not get its Independence.
(C) ILO has three organs, namely, the International Conference, the governing body, and the International Labour Office.
(D) ILO passes conventions and recommendations prescribing International Labour Standards.
Ans: B
67. Match the following Conventions of the ILO according to their incorporation in the concerned laws/source of laws in India.
Conventions Laws/Source of Laws
a. Holidays with pay convention (No. 52) i. Indian Constitution
b. Tripartite Constitution (International Standards) Convention (No. 144) ii. Factories Act
c. Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) iii. International
Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment & conditions of service) Act
d. Inspection of Emigrant convention (No. 21) iv. Minimum Wages Act
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: A
68. The Trade Unions Act empowers a trade union to create a General Fund for its administration and maintenance. A trade union purchased shares in the Unit Trust of India to enhance its General Fund Account. Which of the following is not correct as per law?
(A) The trade union can raise its fund by such type of investments.
(B) The trade union can raise its funds by such investments with the permission of appropriate government.
(C) The trade union can raise its fund by such investments with the consent of its general body.
(D) The trade union cannot do so as it is an attempt towards profit making.
Ans: D
69. While working at the construction of a multi-storeyed building of a company, a worker employed by a ‘contractor’, supplied by a ‘sirdar’, faced an accident and became temporarily disabled. For paying compensation to the worker, who shall be held responsible as per law?
(A) The contractor who employed the worker
(B) The sirdar who supplied the worker
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
70. The basic principle underlying the enactment of the Trade Unions Act is:
(A) To protect interests of workers against disregard of human elements in industries.
(B) To regulate the relationship of workers and their organization by regulating the balance of power.
(C) To provide strength to workers to settle the industrial disputes.
(D) To provide security to workers against the occupational hazards.
Ans: B
71. Which of the following contribute(s) as a principle of labour legislation?
a. Principle of International Obligation
b. Principle of Economic Development
c. Principle of Protection and Regulation
d. Principle of Social Justice
(A) c and d
(B) b, c and d
(C) a, b, c and d
(D) a, b, and d
Ans: C
72. For which of the following, the State Legislature has exclusive power to make laws?
(A) Shops and Commercial Establishments
(B) Vocational and Technical Training of Workers
(C) Participation in International Associations
(D) Social Security and Social Assistance
Ans: A
73. Which of the following is not the objective of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Bill proposed by the second National Commission on Labour?
(A) To ensure that no child would be deprived of a future being deprived of education.
(B) to ensure children not to work in situations where they are exploited.
(C) to prohibit child labour in all employments irrespective of their coverage under the existing Act.
(D) To tackle the problem of child labour by ensuring universal education.
Ans: C
74. Which of the following is/are factor(s) for enactment of a legislation regulating payment of remuneration due to workers?
a. Payment in kind
b. Payment in illegal tender
c. Irregular payments
d. Authorised deductions
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b and d
(C) a, b, c and d
(D) b, c and d
Ans: A
75. What is the qualifying service to claim gratuity?
(A) 15 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 5 years
(D) No such prescription
Ans: C
76. Which of the following can be said to be an Industrial Relations body/ machinery in USA?
(A) Ministry of Labour
(B) National Labour Relations Board (NLRB)
(C) National Productivity Council
(D) AF of L & CIO.
Ans: B
77. The Advisory Conciliation and Arbitration Services (ACAS) which was provided under the Industrial Relations Act of 1975 of Great Britain provides for
(A) Conciliation and Arbitration of disputes
(B) Disposal of dispute by collective bargaining
(C) Matter to be taken to adjudication
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
78. ‘Closed shop’ means which of the following?
(A) Joining union first and then employment.
(B) Employment first and joining union later.
(C) Not joining any union after employment.
(D) A shop which is closed.
Ans: A
79. Under which labour legislation in India the provision of check-off has been accepted?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(B) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(C) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(D) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act
Ans: C
80. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. Royal Commission on Labour i. P.B. Gajendra Gadkar
b. Labour Investigation Committee ii. Rege
c. First National Labour Commission iii. Ravindra Verma
d. Second National Labour Commission iv. J.H. Whitley
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) iv iii i ii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: B
81. Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?
(A) Award of Labour Court
(B) Award of Tribunal
(C) Arbitration Award
(D) Consent Award
Ans: D
82. Assertion (A): The policy of tripartitism on which the Indian Industrial Relations System rested, has failed to yield the desired results.
Reason (R): The parties to the tripartite bodies have resorted to conflict measures and adjudication.
Codes:
(A) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(C) (A) is right and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: C
83. Majority of industrial disputes are settled by which of the following machinery in India?
(A) Conciliation Machinery
(B) Arbitration Machinery
(C) Adjudication Machinery
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
84. Which of the following is the meaning of ‘Cooling off’ period in industrial relations?
(A) Workers to have bath after long hours of work with cold water.
(B) Not to be annoyed at the place of work.
(C) To have a proper spirit of implementing agreements.
(D) The period from serving the notice of strike and the date of resorting to a strike in order to think coolly whether the workers should go on a strike or not.
Ans: D
85. Which one of the following is not a subject matter of industrial relations?
(A) Trade Union and Collective Bargaining
(B) Strikes and Lockouts
(C) Unfair Labour Practices
(D) Employee Compensation and Welfare
Ans: D
86. Safety net provision is a part of which of the following?
(A) Accidents prevention andsafety policy
(B) New economic policy
(C) Corporate social responsibility policy
(D) Employee adjustment policy
Ans: B
87. Assertion (A): In the post economic reforms era Indian business houses initially had to take strong decisions in terms of cost cutting measures and human resource rationalization.
Reason (R): Economic reforms opened up markets and allowed foreign direct investment causing the domestic industry to compete on uneven level playing ground.
Codes:
(A) (A) is right, but (R) attributed is wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is right and (R) is attributed is logical.
Ans: D
88. During whose tenure as Prime Minister, the Economic Reforms in India were initiated?
(A) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(D) Dr. P.V. Narasimha Rao
Ans: D
89. Which of the following is not a contributory factor for HR outsourcing?
(A) Strategic Reasons
(B) Financial Reasons
(C) Trade Union Hassels
(D) Competitive Factor
Ans: C
90. Which of the following statements about downsizing is not correct?
(A) Mergers and Acquisitions are responsible for downsizing.
(B) Technical up gradation cannot be attributed as a reason for downsizing.
(C) Downsizing helps in getting rid of deadwood.
(D) Cost-cutting measure is a reason for downsizing.
Ans: B
91. Match the following:
Management Strategies Propounders
a. ‘5’ forces analysis i. Robert S. Kaplan & David P. Norton
b. Business Process Engineering ii. C.K. Prahlad & Gary Hamel
c. Balanced Scorecard iii. Michael Porter
d. Core Competency Model iv. Michael Hammer and James Champy
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
92. Which of the following is a force that acts as stimulant for organizational change?
(A) Nature of the workforce
(B) Technology
(C) Economic Shock
(D) All the above
Ans: D
93. The Japanese 5 ‘S’ model deals with
(A) Housekeeping
(B) Assembly line production
(C) Quality assurance
(D) Cost effective measures
Ans: A
94. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. POSDCORB i. Mary Parker Follette
b. 14 Principles of Management ii. Luther Gullick
c. Integration Theory of Management iii. Peter F. Drucker
d. Management by Objectives iv. Henry Fayol
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii iv i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) iii i iv iii
Ans: C
95. Which of the following training programmes is meant for a new employee?
(A) Sensitivity training
(B) Apprenticeship training
(C) Induction training
(D) In-basket exercise
Ans: C
96. Which of the following statements is not true about benchmarking strategy of TQM?
(A) It is related to the efforts of Kaizen.
(B) It is related to the raising of criteria for selection.
(C) It is raising the performance standards of the organization.
(D) It is a people driven activity.
Ans: B
97. Which of the following is not a type of HRM strategy?
(A) Task focused strategy
(B) Development oriented strategy
(C) Turnaround HRM strategy
(D) Placating HRM strategy
Ans: D
98. Which of the following is not a ‘lab’ in the sensitivity training, also known as Laboratory training?
(A) Stranger lab
(B) Cousin lab
(C) Organizational lab
(D) Family lab
Ans: C
99. Which of the following statements about the recent trends in HRM is not correct?
(A) Employer branding is attempted to be achieved through HRM practices.
(B) Competency mapping is a recent trend in HRM.
(C) Measurement of HR through balanced scorecard has taken shape.
(D) Performance and Knowledge Management are not related to strategic HRM.
Ans: D
100. Which of the following is not a method of dealing with resistance to change?
(A) Education and Communication
(B) Participation
(C) Facilitation and Support
(D) Coercion and Punishment
Ans: D