ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE- PAGE 3
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE MCQs- PAGE 3
1. National Land Reform Policy stresses on
(A) Restoration of ecological balance
(B) Natural regeneration
(C) Tenancy reforms
(D) Watershed approach
Ans: C
2. Nalgonda technique of fluoride removal involves the use of
(A) Aluminium salts
(B) Sodium salts
(C) Potassium salts
(D) Magnesium salts
Ans: A
3. In which years the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was held and came into force?
(A) 1951, 1955
(B) 1961, 1965
(C) 1971, 1975
(D) 1981, 1985
Ans: C
4. The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect humans from
(A) Toxic gases
(B) Hospital acquired infections
(C) Persistent organic pollutants
(D) Carbon monoxide
Ans: C
5. Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal?
(A) Ensuring environmental sustainability
(B) Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger
(C) Developing global partnership for development
(D) Achieving universal energy security
Ans: D
6. In turbidity analysis, formazin is used
(A) To stabilize the samples
(B) To preserve the samples
(C) To make turbidity standards
(D) To remove colour interferences
Ans: C
7. pE values in water range from approximately
(A) – 1 to 14
(B) – 12 to 25
(C) 1 to 12
(D) 0 to 14
Ans: B
8. Point out the right match concerning the toxic metal and associated adverse impact.
(A) Zn – Brain tissue damage
(B) Ni – Keratosis
(C) Ar – Renal poisoning
(D) Hg – Pulmonary disease
Ans: A
9. Amount of 8-hydroxyquinoline (M.W. 145.16) required for preparing 1000 ml of 5 ppm solution is
(A) 1.45 mg
(B) 5 mg
(C) 7.25 mg
(D) 14.5 mg
Ans: B
10. What is OH– ion concentration of HCl whose pH is 3?
(A) –3
(B) 3
(C) 10–3
(D) 10–11
Ans: D
11. Radioactive waste management in our country is governed under:
(A) Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Trans-boundary Movement)
(B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
(C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(D) Biomedical Waste (Management & Handling) Rules 1998
Ans: C
12. Which of the following parameters is not an indicator of water vapour present in a certain quantity of air?
(A) Virtual temperature
(B) Potential temperature
(C) Wet bulb temperature
(D) Dew point
Ans: B
13. The background noise level in an area is represented by which of the following noise indices?
(A) L10
(B) L50
(C) L90
(D) TNI
Ans: C
14. The chemical formula for CFC-11 is
(A) CF2Cl2
(B) CFCl3
(C) CHFCl2
(D) CHCl3
Ans: B
15. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Mollisol 1. Tundra
b. Oxisol 2. Tropical rain forest
c. Soils of high altitude 3. Prairie soil
d. Soils of low altitude 4. Rich in iron oxide
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans: A
16. Particles which have maximum ability to attract and hold K+, Ca++ and NH4+ ions on their surface are
(A) Clay
(B) Sand
(C) Loam
(D) Loamy sand
Ans: A
17. Compared to CO2, methane has global warming potential of
(A) 5 – 10 times more
(B) 20 – 25 times more
(C) 40 – 45 times more
(D) 60 – 65 times more
Ans: B
18. Laterite soil contains more of
(A) Iron and Aluminium
(B) Magnesium and Boron
(C) Manganese and Silicate
(D) Potassium and Lead
Ans: A
19. Universally accepted method for isolating semivolatile organic compounds from their matrices is
(A) Double infiltration
(B) Solvent extraction
(C) Sedimentation technique
(D) Permeation
Ans: B
20. The relationship between two organisms in which one receives benefit at the cost of other is known as
(A) Predation
(B) Parasitism
(C) Scavenging
(D) Symbiosis
Ans: B
21. Species diversity increases as one proceeds from
(A) Higher to lower altitude and higher to lower latitude
(B) Lower to higher altitude and higher to lower latitude
(C) Lower to higher altitude and lower to higher latitude
(D) Higher to lower altitude and lower to higher latitude
Ans: A
22. Which of the following is not an IUCN-designated threatened species found in India?
(A) Asiatic Lion
(B) Bengal Tiger
(C) Indian White rumped vulture
(D) Mountain gorilla
Ans: D
23. Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square metre?
(A) A grassland
(B) A coral reef
(C) An open ocean
(D) A tropical rain forest
Ans: C
24. The rate of energy at consumer’s level is called
(A) Primary productivity
(B) Gross primary productivity
(C) Net primary productivity
(D) Secondary productivity
Ans: C
25. Peaty soil is found more in
(A) Kerala
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat
Ans: A
26. Brown forest soil is also known as
(A) Entisols
(B) Altisols
(C) Spodosols
(D) Mollisols
Ans: A
27. Establishment of a species in a new area is referred to as
(A) Stabilization
(B) Aggregation
(C) Ecesis
(D) Migration
Ans: C
28. The Zooplankton of continental shelf is generally the same as in
(A) Neritic region
(B) Pelagic region
(C) Estuary region
(D) Benthic region
Ans: B
29. ‘Mesothelioma’ is caused by toxicity of
(A) Mercury
(B) Lead
(C) Arsenic
(D) Carbon monoxide
Ans: C
30. Algal biofertilizer consists of
(A) Blue green algae and earthworm
(B) Algal biomass and Mycorrhiza
(C) Blue green algae and Azolla
(D) Green algae and Rhizobia
Ans: C
31. A volcanic eruption will be violent if there is
(A) High silica and low volatiles
(B) High silica and high volatiles
(C) Low silica and low volatiles
(D) Low silica and high volatiles
Ans: A
32. Which of the following is the satellite for measuring precipitation?
(A) GRACE
(B) TRMM
(C) ASTER
(D) SPOT
Ans: B
33. Clay minerals are
(A) Tectosilicates
(B) Sorosilicates
(C) Inosilicates
(D) Phyllosilicates
Ans: D
34. Vertical dimensions can be obtained from
(A) DEM
(B) SRTM
(C) Topographic Sheets
(D) All the above
Ans: D
35. In biogeochemical cycle, a chemical element or molecule moves through
(A) Biosphere and lithosphere
(B) Biosphere, lithosphere and atmosphere
(C) Biosphere, lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere
(D) Lithosphere and atmosphere
Ans: C
36. Which of the following is not considered as a major type of seashore?
(A) Rocky shore
(B) Sandy shore
(C) Muddy shore
(D) Clayey shore
Ans: D
37. Low-high tides are called
(A) Spring tide
(B) Neap tide
(C) Perigean tide
(D) Apogean tide
Ans: B
38. Consider an ideal wind mill. For following parameters: Vane cross-sectional area = 30 m2; wind speed = 10 m/s; density of air = 1.29 kg/m3 and conversion efficiency = 0.4
What is the power output of the wind mill?
(A) ~ 5.24 kW
(B) ~ 8.21 kW
(C) ~ 10.25 kW
(D) ~ 7.74 kW
Ans: D
39. Biogas produced by anaerobic bacterial activity is a mixture of
(A) CH3OH, CO2, NH3 and H2O
(B) CH4, CO2, NH3, H2S and H2O
(C) H2S, CO2, CO, CH4 and LPG
(D) CO2, SO2, NO2, CH4 and H2O
Ans: B
40. At present, what is the share of renewable energy in the total energy production of India?
(A) ~ 11 – 12%
(B) ~ 2 – 3%
(C) ~ 20%
(D) ~ 25 – 30%
Ans: A
41. If all of the atmosphere were at standard temperature and pressure, then present day CO2 concentration of 392 ppm would correspond to how much carbon in the atmosphere?
(A) ~ 415 Gt
(B) ~ 831 Gt
(C) ~ 1245 Gt
(D) ~ 1620 Gt
Ans: B
42. Risk assessment is different from Environmental Impact Assessment in terms of
(A) Hazard identification
(B) Disaster management
(C) Probability expression
(D) Consideration of human environment
Ans: C
43. Reliable, quantitative and verifiable data used in Environmental Impact Assessment study are called
(A) Hard data
(B) Soft data
(C) Continuous data
(D) Discrete data
Ans: A
44. Which category of projects does not require Environmental Impact Assessment in accordance with the Indian EIA Notification 2006?
(A) Category A
(B) Category B1
(C) Category B2
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
45. Environmental Protection Act was enacted in India during
(A) 1986
(B) 1984
(C) 1994
(D) 1987
Ans: A
46. Minimum Stock height of incinerators should be
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 60 m
Ans: C
47. Basal convention on trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste was implemented in the year
(A) 1969
(B) 1979
(C) 1989
(D) 1999
Ans: C
48. The events A and B are mutually exclusive. If P (A) = 0.5 and P(B) = 0.2, then what is P(A & B)?
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.7
(D) 0.3
Ans: B
49. A population, from where samples are drawn, is called
(A) Total population
(B) Target population
(C) Accessible population
(D) Universal population
Ans: C
50. The rate of variation of population (N) with time (t) represented by equation dN/dt = γ N, follows
(A) J-shaped curve
(B) S-shaped curve
(C) Z-shaped curve
(D) Parabolic curve
Ans: A
(A) Restoration of ecological balance
(B) Natural regeneration
(C) Tenancy reforms
(D) Watershed approach
Ans: C
2. Nalgonda technique of fluoride removal involves the use of
(A) Aluminium salts
(B) Sodium salts
(C) Potassium salts
(D) Magnesium salts
Ans: A
3. In which years the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was held and came into force?
(A) 1951, 1955
(B) 1961, 1965
(C) 1971, 1975
(D) 1981, 1985
Ans: C
4. The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect humans from
(A) Toxic gases
(B) Hospital acquired infections
(C) Persistent organic pollutants
(D) Carbon monoxide
Ans: C
5. Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal?
(A) Ensuring environmental sustainability
(B) Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger
(C) Developing global partnership for development
(D) Achieving universal energy security
Ans: D
6. In turbidity analysis, formazin is used
(A) To stabilize the samples
(B) To preserve the samples
(C) To make turbidity standards
(D) To remove colour interferences
Ans: C
7. pE values in water range from approximately
(A) – 1 to 14
(B) – 12 to 25
(C) 1 to 12
(D) 0 to 14
Ans: B
8. Point out the right match concerning the toxic metal and associated adverse impact.
(A) Zn – Brain tissue damage
(B) Ni – Keratosis
(C) Ar – Renal poisoning
(D) Hg – Pulmonary disease
Ans: A
9. Amount of 8-hydroxyquinoline (M.W. 145.16) required for preparing 1000 ml of 5 ppm solution is
(A) 1.45 mg
(B) 5 mg
(C) 7.25 mg
(D) 14.5 mg
Ans: B
10. What is OH– ion concentration of HCl whose pH is 3?
(A) –3
(B) 3
(C) 10–3
(D) 10–11
Ans: D
11. Radioactive waste management in our country is governed under:
(A) Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Trans-boundary Movement)
(B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
(C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(D) Biomedical Waste (Management & Handling) Rules 1998
Ans: C
12. Which of the following parameters is not an indicator of water vapour present in a certain quantity of air?
(A) Virtual temperature
(B) Potential temperature
(C) Wet bulb temperature
(D) Dew point
Ans: B
13. The background noise level in an area is represented by which of the following noise indices?
(A) L10
(B) L50
(C) L90
(D) TNI
Ans: C
14. The chemical formula for CFC-11 is
(A) CF2Cl2
(B) CFCl3
(C) CHFCl2
(D) CHCl3
Ans: B
15. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Mollisol 1. Tundra
b. Oxisol 2. Tropical rain forest
c. Soils of high altitude 3. Prairie soil
d. Soils of low altitude 4. Rich in iron oxide
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans: A
16. Particles which have maximum ability to attract and hold K+, Ca++ and NH4+ ions on their surface are
(A) Clay
(B) Sand
(C) Loam
(D) Loamy sand
Ans: A
17. Compared to CO2, methane has global warming potential of
(A) 5 – 10 times more
(B) 20 – 25 times more
(C) 40 – 45 times more
(D) 60 – 65 times more
Ans: B
18. Laterite soil contains more of
(A) Iron and Aluminium
(B) Magnesium and Boron
(C) Manganese and Silicate
(D) Potassium and Lead
Ans: A
19. Universally accepted method for isolating semivolatile organic compounds from their matrices is
(A) Double infiltration
(B) Solvent extraction
(C) Sedimentation technique
(D) Permeation
Ans: B
20. The relationship between two organisms in which one receives benefit at the cost of other is known as
(A) Predation
(B) Parasitism
(C) Scavenging
(D) Symbiosis
Ans: B
21. Species diversity increases as one proceeds from
(A) Higher to lower altitude and higher to lower latitude
(B) Lower to higher altitude and higher to lower latitude
(C) Lower to higher altitude and lower to higher latitude
(D) Higher to lower altitude and lower to higher latitude
Ans: A
22. Which of the following is not an IUCN-designated threatened species found in India?
(A) Asiatic Lion
(B) Bengal Tiger
(C) Indian White rumped vulture
(D) Mountain gorilla
Ans: D
23. Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square metre?
(A) A grassland
(B) A coral reef
(C) An open ocean
(D) A tropical rain forest
Ans: C
24. The rate of energy at consumer’s level is called
(A) Primary productivity
(B) Gross primary productivity
(C) Net primary productivity
(D) Secondary productivity
Ans: C
25. Peaty soil is found more in
(A) Kerala
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat
Ans: A
26. Brown forest soil is also known as
(A) Entisols
(B) Altisols
(C) Spodosols
(D) Mollisols
Ans: A
27. Establishment of a species in a new area is referred to as
(A) Stabilization
(B) Aggregation
(C) Ecesis
(D) Migration
Ans: C
28. The Zooplankton of continental shelf is generally the same as in
(A) Neritic region
(B) Pelagic region
(C) Estuary region
(D) Benthic region
Ans: B
29. ‘Mesothelioma’ is caused by toxicity of
(A) Mercury
(B) Lead
(C) Arsenic
(D) Carbon monoxide
Ans: C
30. Algal biofertilizer consists of
(A) Blue green algae and earthworm
(B) Algal biomass and Mycorrhiza
(C) Blue green algae and Azolla
(D) Green algae and Rhizobia
Ans: C
31. A volcanic eruption will be violent if there is
(A) High silica and low volatiles
(B) High silica and high volatiles
(C) Low silica and low volatiles
(D) Low silica and high volatiles
Ans: A
32. Which of the following is the satellite for measuring precipitation?
(A) GRACE
(B) TRMM
(C) ASTER
(D) SPOT
Ans: B
33. Clay minerals are
(A) Tectosilicates
(B) Sorosilicates
(C) Inosilicates
(D) Phyllosilicates
Ans: D
34. Vertical dimensions can be obtained from
(A) DEM
(B) SRTM
(C) Topographic Sheets
(D) All the above
Ans: D
35. In biogeochemical cycle, a chemical element or molecule moves through
(A) Biosphere and lithosphere
(B) Biosphere, lithosphere and atmosphere
(C) Biosphere, lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere
(D) Lithosphere and atmosphere
Ans: C
36. Which of the following is not considered as a major type of seashore?
(A) Rocky shore
(B) Sandy shore
(C) Muddy shore
(D) Clayey shore
Ans: D
37. Low-high tides are called
(A) Spring tide
(B) Neap tide
(C) Perigean tide
(D) Apogean tide
Ans: B
38. Consider an ideal wind mill. For following parameters: Vane cross-sectional area = 30 m2; wind speed = 10 m/s; density of air = 1.29 kg/m3 and conversion efficiency = 0.4
What is the power output of the wind mill?
(A) ~ 5.24 kW
(B) ~ 8.21 kW
(C) ~ 10.25 kW
(D) ~ 7.74 kW
Ans: D
39. Biogas produced by anaerobic bacterial activity is a mixture of
(A) CH3OH, CO2, NH3 and H2O
(B) CH4, CO2, NH3, H2S and H2O
(C) H2S, CO2, CO, CH4 and LPG
(D) CO2, SO2, NO2, CH4 and H2O
Ans: B
40. At present, what is the share of renewable energy in the total energy production of India?
(A) ~ 11 – 12%
(B) ~ 2 – 3%
(C) ~ 20%
(D) ~ 25 – 30%
Ans: A
41. If all of the atmosphere were at standard temperature and pressure, then present day CO2 concentration of 392 ppm would correspond to how much carbon in the atmosphere?
(A) ~ 415 Gt
(B) ~ 831 Gt
(C) ~ 1245 Gt
(D) ~ 1620 Gt
Ans: B
42. Risk assessment is different from Environmental Impact Assessment in terms of
(A) Hazard identification
(B) Disaster management
(C) Probability expression
(D) Consideration of human environment
Ans: C
43. Reliable, quantitative and verifiable data used in Environmental Impact Assessment study are called
(A) Hard data
(B) Soft data
(C) Continuous data
(D) Discrete data
Ans: A
44. Which category of projects does not require Environmental Impact Assessment in accordance with the Indian EIA Notification 2006?
(A) Category A
(B) Category B1
(C) Category B2
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
45. Environmental Protection Act was enacted in India during
(A) 1986
(B) 1984
(C) 1994
(D) 1987
Ans: A
46. Minimum Stock height of incinerators should be
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 60 m
Ans: C
47. Basal convention on trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste was implemented in the year
(A) 1969
(B) 1979
(C) 1989
(D) 1999
Ans: C
48. The events A and B are mutually exclusive. If P (A) = 0.5 and P(B) = 0.2, then what is P(A & B)?
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.7
(D) 0.3
Ans: B
49. A population, from where samples are drawn, is called
(A) Total population
(B) Target population
(C) Accessible population
(D) Universal population
Ans: C
50. The rate of variation of population (N) with time (t) represented by equation dN/dt = γ N, follows
(A) J-shaped curve
(B) S-shaped curve
(C) Z-shaped curve
(D) Parabolic curve
Ans: A
51. The primary producers in the marine ecosystem are
(A) Eubacteria and Algae
(B) Cyanobacteria and Algae
(C) Algae and Protozoans
(D) All of the above
Ans: B
52. Mycorrhizae can be used as bio fertilizers because they
(A) Fix nitrogen
(B) Fix CO2
(C) Solubilise phosphate
(D) Kill pathogens
Ans: C
53. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Some plants with mycorrhizal fungi are able to occupy habitats that otherwise could not inhabit.
Reason (R): The importance of mycorrhizal plant interaction is attested by the fact that 95% of all plants have mycorrhizae.
Choose the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
54. An interactive association between two populations in which one population benefits from the association, while the other is not affected, is
(A) Mutualism
(B) Neutralism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Symbiosis
Ans: C
55. The method for down streaming of ethanol from fermentation broth is
(A) Filtration
(B) Flow cytometry
(C) Distillation
(D) Flame Photometry
Ans: C
56. The country which uses maximum nuclear power is
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans: C
57. Which bacteria removes copper from low grade copper ore?
(A) Thiobacillussp
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Rhizobium sp
(D) All of the above
Ans: A
58. Which of the following is not a part of Geographic Information Syste (GIS)?
(A) Projection
(B) Overlay
(C) Reclassification
(D) Measuring distance and connectivity
Ans: A
59. Ultrafiltration can remove
(A) Suspended solids
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) All the above
Ans: D
60. A good automobile fuel, in addition to having high calorific value, should have
(A) High ignition temperature
(B) High viscosity
(C) Low ignition temperature
(D) Moderate ignition temperature
Ans: D
61. Reserve food material in algae is
(A) Starch
(B) Cellulose
(C) Protein
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
62. The biodegradability of xenobiotics can be characterized by
(A) Rate of CO2 formation
(B) Rate of O2 consumption
(C) Ratio of BOD to COD
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
63. The soil borne plant pathogens could be controlled by
(A) Lowering pH
(B) Increasing pH
(C) Adding lime
(D) All of the above
Ans: A
64. A selective Lignin degrading fungus belongs to
(A) Soft – rot
(B) Brown – rot
(C) White – rot
(D) Red – rot
Ans: C
65. The drastic reduction in the number of intestinal pathogens during activated sludge process is the overall result of
(A) Competition
(B) Competition and adsorption
(C) Predation, competition and adsorption
(D) Competition, adsorption, predation and settling
Ans: D
66. Which of the following disinfection method does not result in synthesis of organochlorine?
(A) Chlorination
(B) Chloroamination
(C) Ozonation
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
67. An organism’s niche is
(A) The way the organism uses the range of physical and biological conditions in which it lives.
(B) All the biological and physical factors in the organism’s environment.
(C) The function role played by the organism where it lives.
(D) The range of temperature that the organism needs to live.
Ans: C
68. The pyramid of biomass is invented in
(A) Forest ecosystem
(B) Greenland ecosystem
(C) Aquatic ecosystem
(D) All of the above
Ans: C
69. Which of the following chemicals of anthropogenic origin mimics the effect of estrogen in animals?
(A) Alkyl phenol
(B) Polychlorinated biphenyl
(C) O, p’ - DDT
(D) All the above
Ans: D
70. “Black Foot” disease in human beings caused due to use of water contaminated with
(A) Mercury
(B) Cadmium
(C) Silver
(D) Arsenic
Ans: D
71. Largest amount of fresh water is present in
(A) Lakes
(B) Rivers
(C) Glaciers
(D) Polar Ice
Ans: D
72. A threatened species is
(A) Only endangered species
(B) Only vulnerable species
(C) Only rare species
(D) all of the above
Ans: D
73. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Animals adopt various strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason (R): Praying mantis is green in color which emerges with plant foliage.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: C
74. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Increasing temperature in the environment influences gonadal growth in fish.
Reason (R): Increase in day length causes increase in environmental temperature in summer.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: A
75. Match Column – I with Column – II:
Column – I Column – II
a. The Rio Summit 1. 1997
b. Johannesburg Earth Summit 2. 1972
c. Kyoto Protocol 3. 1992
d. The Stockholm Conference 4. 2002
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans: A
76. If the standard deviation of a population is 20 and the standard error of mean is 4, then the sample size is
(A) 25
(B) 80
(C) 5
(D) 100
Ans: A
77. In a multiple regression model, the explained variance per d.f. is 50 and unexplained variance per d.f. is 10. The F-ratio is
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 25
(D) 0.2
Ans: B
78. Which one of the following is not a random sampling method?
(A) Stratified Sampling
(B) Cluster Sampling
(C) Systematic Sampling
(D) Judgement Sampling
Ans: B
79. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume size is estimated considering buoyancy of exhaust gases, stack diameter, wind speed and stability of the atmosphere. The plume size Dh depends on inside radius of stack (r) as
(A) Dh µ r
(B) Dh µ r1/3
(C) Dh µ r2/3
(D) Dh µ r2
Ans: D
80. The acidity of normal rain water is due to
(A) CO2
(B) Cl2
(C) NO2
(D) SO2
Ans: C
81. Percent of water on the world’s surface representing fresh water is
(A) 97
(B) 50
(C) 10
(D) 3
Ans: A
82. Concentration of CO2 in present day atmosphere is
(A) ~ 220 ppm
(B) ~ 280 ppm
(C) ~ 360 ppm
(D) ~ 390 ppm
Ans: D
83. Hardness of diamond is due to
(A) Coordinate bonding
(B) Covalent bonding
(C) Electrovalent bonding
(D) van der Waals forces
Ans: B
84. In biological systems sulphur is largely bound in
(A) Lipids
(B) Proteins
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Proteins and nucleic acids
Ans: B
85. pH of 0.01 M HNO3 is
(A) 0.1
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 10
Ans: C
86. Which is a correct food chain in the Antarctic ecosystem?
(A) Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Emperor Penguin
(B) Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Squid – Elephant Seal – Leopard Seal
(C) Phytoplankton – Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Adelic Penguin – Emperor Penguin
(D) Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Phytoplankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Elephant Seal – Leopard Seal
Ans: B
87. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The phosphorous cycle in an ecosystem is a sedimentary cycle.
Reason (R): Phosphorous does not occur naturally as gas.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
88. Pyramid of trophic levels is always upright in case of
(A) Biomass
(B) Energy
(C) Number
(D) All of the above
Ans: B
89. Which of the following is a correct match?
(A) Periyar – Kerala
(B) Ranthambore – M.P.
(C) Panna – U.P.
(D) Bandhvgarh – Bihar
Ans: A
90. Replacement of existing communities by any external condition is termed
(A) Primary succession
(B) Secondary succession
(C) Autogenic succession
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
91. The area where two major communities meet and blend together is termed as
(A) Ecotype
(B) Biotype
(C) Ecotone
(D) Meeting place
Ans: C
92. Indian wolf has become an important animal because
(A) It’s name appears in Red Data Book.
(B) It is only an important member of food chain of almost all Indian forests.
(C) Wild dogs disappeared due to their presence.
(D) It has been chosen as a State animal.
Ans: A
93. Walkley and Black rapid titration method is used for the determination of
(A) Organic carbon content of soil
(B) Nitrate content of soil
(C) Phosphate content of soil
(D) Fluoride content of soil
Ans: A
94. Which one of the following is an endoenzyme in soil?
(A) Cellulase
(B) Invertase
(C) Protease
(D) Dehydrogenase
Ans: D
95. Of the following humic groups which is not soluble in both acid and alkali?
(A) Fulvic acid
(B) Humic acid
(C) Humin
(D) All of the above
Ans: C
96. The sources of thermal pollution are
(A) Power plants
(B) Cooling forests
(C) Industrial effluents
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
97. Which one of the following radionuclides has the longest half life?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Ans: D
98. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year 1976?
(A) Insertion of Article 48-A
(B) Insertion of Article 51-A (g)
(C) Insertion of Article 48-A and 51-A (g)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
99. Who issues the Ecomark notification?
(A) Ministry of Environment and Forest, Govt. of India
(B) Ministry of Human Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India
(C) Department of Science and Technology, Govt. of India
(D) Bureau of Indian Standards
Ans: A
100. Which one of the following is a waste recycling method of solid waste management?
(A) Pelletisation
(B) Composting
(C) Incineration
(D) Sanitary Landfill
Ans: B
(A) Eubacteria and Algae
(B) Cyanobacteria and Algae
(C) Algae and Protozoans
(D) All of the above
Ans: B
52. Mycorrhizae can be used as bio fertilizers because they
(A) Fix nitrogen
(B) Fix CO2
(C) Solubilise phosphate
(D) Kill pathogens
Ans: C
53. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Some plants with mycorrhizal fungi are able to occupy habitats that otherwise could not inhabit.
Reason (R): The importance of mycorrhizal plant interaction is attested by the fact that 95% of all plants have mycorrhizae.
Choose the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
54. An interactive association between two populations in which one population benefits from the association, while the other is not affected, is
(A) Mutualism
(B) Neutralism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Symbiosis
Ans: C
55. The method for down streaming of ethanol from fermentation broth is
(A) Filtration
(B) Flow cytometry
(C) Distillation
(D) Flame Photometry
Ans: C
56. The country which uses maximum nuclear power is
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans: C
57. Which bacteria removes copper from low grade copper ore?
(A) Thiobacillussp
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Rhizobium sp
(D) All of the above
Ans: A
58. Which of the following is not a part of Geographic Information Syste (GIS)?
(A) Projection
(B) Overlay
(C) Reclassification
(D) Measuring distance and connectivity
Ans: A
59. Ultrafiltration can remove
(A) Suspended solids
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) All the above
Ans: D
60. A good automobile fuel, in addition to having high calorific value, should have
(A) High ignition temperature
(B) High viscosity
(C) Low ignition temperature
(D) Moderate ignition temperature
Ans: D
61. Reserve food material in algae is
(A) Starch
(B) Cellulose
(C) Protein
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
62. The biodegradability of xenobiotics can be characterized by
(A) Rate of CO2 formation
(B) Rate of O2 consumption
(C) Ratio of BOD to COD
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
63. The soil borne plant pathogens could be controlled by
(A) Lowering pH
(B) Increasing pH
(C) Adding lime
(D) All of the above
Ans: A
64. A selective Lignin degrading fungus belongs to
(A) Soft – rot
(B) Brown – rot
(C) White – rot
(D) Red – rot
Ans: C
65. The drastic reduction in the number of intestinal pathogens during activated sludge process is the overall result of
(A) Competition
(B) Competition and adsorption
(C) Predation, competition and adsorption
(D) Competition, adsorption, predation and settling
Ans: D
66. Which of the following disinfection method does not result in synthesis of organochlorine?
(A) Chlorination
(B) Chloroamination
(C) Ozonation
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
67. An organism’s niche is
(A) The way the organism uses the range of physical and biological conditions in which it lives.
(B) All the biological and physical factors in the organism’s environment.
(C) The function role played by the organism where it lives.
(D) The range of temperature that the organism needs to live.
Ans: C
68. The pyramid of biomass is invented in
(A) Forest ecosystem
(B) Greenland ecosystem
(C) Aquatic ecosystem
(D) All of the above
Ans: C
69. Which of the following chemicals of anthropogenic origin mimics the effect of estrogen in animals?
(A) Alkyl phenol
(B) Polychlorinated biphenyl
(C) O, p’ - DDT
(D) All the above
Ans: D
70. “Black Foot” disease in human beings caused due to use of water contaminated with
(A) Mercury
(B) Cadmium
(C) Silver
(D) Arsenic
Ans: D
71. Largest amount of fresh water is present in
(A) Lakes
(B) Rivers
(C) Glaciers
(D) Polar Ice
Ans: D
72. A threatened species is
(A) Only endangered species
(B) Only vulnerable species
(C) Only rare species
(D) all of the above
Ans: D
73. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Animals adopt various strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason (R): Praying mantis is green in color which emerges with plant foliage.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: C
74. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Increasing temperature in the environment influences gonadal growth in fish.
Reason (R): Increase in day length causes increase in environmental temperature in summer.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: A
75. Match Column – I with Column – II:
Column – I Column – II
a. The Rio Summit 1. 1997
b. Johannesburg Earth Summit 2. 1972
c. Kyoto Protocol 3. 1992
d. The Stockholm Conference 4. 2002
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans: A
76. If the standard deviation of a population is 20 and the standard error of mean is 4, then the sample size is
(A) 25
(B) 80
(C) 5
(D) 100
Ans: A
77. In a multiple regression model, the explained variance per d.f. is 50 and unexplained variance per d.f. is 10. The F-ratio is
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 25
(D) 0.2
Ans: B
78. Which one of the following is not a random sampling method?
(A) Stratified Sampling
(B) Cluster Sampling
(C) Systematic Sampling
(D) Judgement Sampling
Ans: B
79. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume size is estimated considering buoyancy of exhaust gases, stack diameter, wind speed and stability of the atmosphere. The plume size Dh depends on inside radius of stack (r) as
(A) Dh µ r
(B) Dh µ r1/3
(C) Dh µ r2/3
(D) Dh µ r2
Ans: D
80. The acidity of normal rain water is due to
(A) CO2
(B) Cl2
(C) NO2
(D) SO2
Ans: C
81. Percent of water on the world’s surface representing fresh water is
(A) 97
(B) 50
(C) 10
(D) 3
Ans: A
82. Concentration of CO2 in present day atmosphere is
(A) ~ 220 ppm
(B) ~ 280 ppm
(C) ~ 360 ppm
(D) ~ 390 ppm
Ans: D
83. Hardness of diamond is due to
(A) Coordinate bonding
(B) Covalent bonding
(C) Electrovalent bonding
(D) van der Waals forces
Ans: B
84. In biological systems sulphur is largely bound in
(A) Lipids
(B) Proteins
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Proteins and nucleic acids
Ans: B
85. pH of 0.01 M HNO3 is
(A) 0.1
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 10
Ans: C
86. Which is a correct food chain in the Antarctic ecosystem?
(A) Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Emperor Penguin
(B) Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Squid – Elephant Seal – Leopard Seal
(C) Phytoplankton – Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Adelic Penguin – Emperor Penguin
(D) Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Phytoplankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Elephant Seal – Leopard Seal
Ans: B
87. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The phosphorous cycle in an ecosystem is a sedimentary cycle.
Reason (R): Phosphorous does not occur naturally as gas.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
88. Pyramid of trophic levels is always upright in case of
(A) Biomass
(B) Energy
(C) Number
(D) All of the above
Ans: B
89. Which of the following is a correct match?
(A) Periyar – Kerala
(B) Ranthambore – M.P.
(C) Panna – U.P.
(D) Bandhvgarh – Bihar
Ans: A
90. Replacement of existing communities by any external condition is termed
(A) Primary succession
(B) Secondary succession
(C) Autogenic succession
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
91. The area where two major communities meet and blend together is termed as
(A) Ecotype
(B) Biotype
(C) Ecotone
(D) Meeting place
Ans: C
92. Indian wolf has become an important animal because
(A) It’s name appears in Red Data Book.
(B) It is only an important member of food chain of almost all Indian forests.
(C) Wild dogs disappeared due to their presence.
(D) It has been chosen as a State animal.
Ans: A
93. Walkley and Black rapid titration method is used for the determination of
(A) Organic carbon content of soil
(B) Nitrate content of soil
(C) Phosphate content of soil
(D) Fluoride content of soil
Ans: A
94. Which one of the following is an endoenzyme in soil?
(A) Cellulase
(B) Invertase
(C) Protease
(D) Dehydrogenase
Ans: D
95. Of the following humic groups which is not soluble in both acid and alkali?
(A) Fulvic acid
(B) Humic acid
(C) Humin
(D) All of the above
Ans: C
96. The sources of thermal pollution are
(A) Power plants
(B) Cooling forests
(C) Industrial effluents
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
97. Which one of the following radionuclides has the longest half life?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Ans: D
98. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year 1976?
(A) Insertion of Article 48-A
(B) Insertion of Article 51-A (g)
(C) Insertion of Article 48-A and 51-A (g)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
99. Who issues the Ecomark notification?
(A) Ministry of Environment and Forest, Govt. of India
(B) Ministry of Human Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India
(C) Department of Science and Technology, Govt. of India
(D) Bureau of Indian Standards
Ans: A
100. Which one of the following is a waste recycling method of solid waste management?
(A) Pelletisation
(B) Composting
(C) Incineration
(D) Sanitary Landfill
Ans: B