CIVIL ENGINEERING- PAGE 12
Civil Engineering MCQ- Page 12
1. Weight batching proceeds on
(A) The assumption of the declared weight in each bag of cement
(B) Weighing the contents of each bag
(C) Accurately estimating the weight of each material to be used in each batch
(D) The assumption of correct dry weight of each size range of each material and the weight of water
Ans: C
2. The original cost of an equipment is Rs.10,000. Its salvage value at the end of its total useful life of five years is Rs.1,000. Its book value at the end of two years of its useful life (as per straight line method of evaluation of depreciation) will be
(A) Rs.8,800
(B) Rs. 7,600
(C) Rs.6,400
(D) Rs.5,000
Ans: C
3. Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of work is given to a contractor
(A) on commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken by him
(B) for the purchase of construction material
(C) for the payment of advances to labour and other staff
(D) for all the activities required to start the work at site on finalization of contract document
Ans: D
4. Consider the following statements :
CPM network helps an engineer to
1. Concentrate his attention oh critical activities
2. Divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical activities
3. Be cautious in avoiding any delay in the critical activities in order to avoid delay of the whole project
Of these statements :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: D
5. Consider the following statements:
PERT
1. Takes care of uncertainties in the completion time
2. Requires single time estimjate
3. Is useful for research and development oriented problem
4. Uses beta distribution probability curve
Of these statements :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: B
6. Match List I with List II select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(a) Piece work contract
(b) Lump sum contract
(c) Item rate contract
(d) Labour contract
List II
1. Not practiced in Government
2. Payment made by detailed measurement of different items
3. Adopted for building roads, bridges and electrical works
4. Petty works and regular maintenance work
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans: D
7. In PERT analysis, event means
(A) start or finish of a task
(B) time taken for a task
(C) end of an activity
(D) work involved in the project
Ans: A
8. In a bar chart the vertical axis represents
(A) time
(B) types of activities
(C) number of labours
(D) various activities of the project
Ans: D
9. Select the incorrect statement from the following :
(A) Event should be numbered in increasing order from left to right
(B) A pair of numbers should represent one and only one activity
(C) Dummy events should be used for convenience of numbering
(D) All activity arrows should be directed from left to right
Ans: C
10. A dummy activity is that part of the project which
(A) consumes resources
(B) doesn't consume resources
(C) consumes time only
(D) none of the above
Ans: B
11. Which among the following is a Retarder?
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Chromium oxide
(C) Tributyl acetate
(D) Sodium penta chloro phenate
Ans: A
12. The Bogue compound Tricalcium aluminate in clinkering process of cement is named as
(A) Alite
(B) Belite
(C) Celite
(D) Felite
Ans: C
13. The undesirable properties of cement is due to formation of
(A) dicalcium silicate
(B) tricalcium silicate
(C) tricalcium aluminate
(D) tetracalcium aluminate
Ans: C
14. As per IS specification, minimum time for initial setting of ordinary portland cement is
(A) 20 minutes
(B) 30 minutes
(C) 60 minutes
(D) 120 minutes
Ans: B
15. Compressive strength of cement is determined using cube of size
(A) 15 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 7.6 cm
(D) 7.06 cm
Ans: D
(A) The assumption of the declared weight in each bag of cement
(B) Weighing the contents of each bag
(C) Accurately estimating the weight of each material to be used in each batch
(D) The assumption of correct dry weight of each size range of each material and the weight of water
Ans: C
2. The original cost of an equipment is Rs.10,000. Its salvage value at the end of its total useful life of five years is Rs.1,000. Its book value at the end of two years of its useful life (as per straight line method of evaluation of depreciation) will be
(A) Rs.8,800
(B) Rs. 7,600
(C) Rs.6,400
(D) Rs.5,000
Ans: C
3. Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of work is given to a contractor
(A) on commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken by him
(B) for the purchase of construction material
(C) for the payment of advances to labour and other staff
(D) for all the activities required to start the work at site on finalization of contract document
Ans: D
4. Consider the following statements :
CPM network helps an engineer to
1. Concentrate his attention oh critical activities
2. Divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical activities
3. Be cautious in avoiding any delay in the critical activities in order to avoid delay of the whole project
Of these statements :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: D
5. Consider the following statements:
PERT
1. Takes care of uncertainties in the completion time
2. Requires single time estimjate
3. Is useful for research and development oriented problem
4. Uses beta distribution probability curve
Of these statements :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: B
6. Match List I with List II select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
(a) Piece work contract
(b) Lump sum contract
(c) Item rate contract
(d) Labour contract
List II
1. Not practiced in Government
2. Payment made by detailed measurement of different items
3. Adopted for building roads, bridges and electrical works
4. Petty works and regular maintenance work
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans: D
7. In PERT analysis, event means
(A) start or finish of a task
(B) time taken for a task
(C) end of an activity
(D) work involved in the project
Ans: A
8. In a bar chart the vertical axis represents
(A) time
(B) types of activities
(C) number of labours
(D) various activities of the project
Ans: D
9. Select the incorrect statement from the following :
(A) Event should be numbered in increasing order from left to right
(B) A pair of numbers should represent one and only one activity
(C) Dummy events should be used for convenience of numbering
(D) All activity arrows should be directed from left to right
Ans: C
10. A dummy activity is that part of the project which
(A) consumes resources
(B) doesn't consume resources
(C) consumes time only
(D) none of the above
Ans: B
11. Which among the following is a Retarder?
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Chromium oxide
(C) Tributyl acetate
(D) Sodium penta chloro phenate
Ans: A
12. The Bogue compound Tricalcium aluminate in clinkering process of cement is named as
(A) Alite
(B) Belite
(C) Celite
(D) Felite
Ans: C
13. The undesirable properties of cement is due to formation of
(A) dicalcium silicate
(B) tricalcium silicate
(C) tricalcium aluminate
(D) tetracalcium aluminate
Ans: C
14. As per IS specification, minimum time for initial setting of ordinary portland cement is
(A) 20 minutes
(B) 30 minutes
(C) 60 minutes
(D) 120 minutes
Ans: B
15. Compressive strength of cement is determined using cube of size
(A) 15 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 7.6 cm
(D) 7.06 cm
Ans: D
16. If water content, specific gravity and void ratio of given soil are 11.11%, 2.7 and 0.5 respectively, the degree of saturation is equal to
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 70%
Ans: C
17. Pick the incorrect principle in stone masonry construction
(A) Stone should be properly dressed to requirements
(B) Header and bond stones should be of dumb-bull shapes
(C) Stones to be used should be hard, tough and durable
(D) Construction work of stone masonry should be raised uniformly
Ans: B
18. Water-Cement ratio in concrete is the ratio of
(A) Volume of water to volume of cement
(B) Volume of water to the weight of cement
(C) Weight of water to the weight of cement
(D) Weight of water to the volume of cement
Ans: C
19. In pavement concrete quality, a value of compacting factor suggested varies
(A) 0.75 to 0.80
(B) 0.60 to 0.85
(C) 0.9 to 1.0
(D) 0.5 to 0.6
Ans: A
20. Type of stone masonry without any mortar
(A) Random rubble
(B) Polygonal rubble
(C) Flint rubble
(D) Dry rubble
Ans: D
21. Generally the rail sections used in India are
(A) Double headed
(B) Bull headed
(C) Flat footed
(D) Regular I-sections
Ans: C
22. The curvature correction for a distance of 800 m is
(A) 0.5 m
(B) 0.005 m
(C) 0.05m
(D) 5 m
Ans: C
23. Anallatic lens is fitted with
(A) Internal focussing telescope
(B) External focussing telescope
(C) Ordinary telescope
(D) Tacheometric telescope
Ans: B
24. Which one is not a fundamental axis of a Theodolite?
(A) Line of sight
(B) Axis of altitude bubble
(C) Axis of plate level
(D) Horizontal axis
Ans: B
25. The unit of measurement for explosives for blasting
(A) Number
(B) Kg
(C) Cu.m
(D) Sq.m
Ans: B
26. In analysis of rate the quantity of dry mortar for 10 cubic metre brick work is taken as
(A) 10 m3
(B) 3 m3
(C) 0.3m3
(D) 1 m3
Ans: B
27. The technique of finding the fair price of an existing building or property at present is known as
(A) estimation
(B) valuation
(C) pnicing
(D) costing
Ans: B
28. The useful part ofliveable area of a building is known as
(A) Floor area
(B) Circulation area
(C) Plinth area
(D) Carpet area
Ans: D
29. The cost of a machine is Rs.50,000 with a useful life of 10 years. Its depreciated cost, after 5 years, if salvage value is Rs.10,000 on straight line basis will be
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 25,000
(C) Rs. 30,000
(D) Rs. 35,000
Ans: C
30. Which of the following is the most correct estimate?
(A) Plinth area estimate
(B) Cube rate estimate
(C) Detailed estimate
(D) Abstract estimate
Ans: C
31. The maximum strain energy stored at elastic limit per unit volume is known as
(A) proof resilience
(B) resilience
(C) modulus of resilience
(D) strain energy density
Ans: C
32. When load is acting in longitudinal direction and when a change in length takes place, the strain is known as
(A) linear strain
(B) lateral strain
(C) shear strain
(D) volumetric strain
Ans: A
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 70%
Ans: C
17. Pick the incorrect principle in stone masonry construction
(A) Stone should be properly dressed to requirements
(B) Header and bond stones should be of dumb-bull shapes
(C) Stones to be used should be hard, tough and durable
(D) Construction work of stone masonry should be raised uniformly
Ans: B
18. Water-Cement ratio in concrete is the ratio of
(A) Volume of water to volume of cement
(B) Volume of water to the weight of cement
(C) Weight of water to the weight of cement
(D) Weight of water to the volume of cement
Ans: C
19. In pavement concrete quality, a value of compacting factor suggested varies
(A) 0.75 to 0.80
(B) 0.60 to 0.85
(C) 0.9 to 1.0
(D) 0.5 to 0.6
Ans: A
20. Type of stone masonry without any mortar
(A) Random rubble
(B) Polygonal rubble
(C) Flint rubble
(D) Dry rubble
Ans: D
21. Generally the rail sections used in India are
(A) Double headed
(B) Bull headed
(C) Flat footed
(D) Regular I-sections
Ans: C
22. The curvature correction for a distance of 800 m is
(A) 0.5 m
(B) 0.005 m
(C) 0.05m
(D) 5 m
Ans: C
23. Anallatic lens is fitted with
(A) Internal focussing telescope
(B) External focussing telescope
(C) Ordinary telescope
(D) Tacheometric telescope
Ans: B
24. Which one is not a fundamental axis of a Theodolite?
(A) Line of sight
(B) Axis of altitude bubble
(C) Axis of plate level
(D) Horizontal axis
Ans: B
25. The unit of measurement for explosives for blasting
(A) Number
(B) Kg
(C) Cu.m
(D) Sq.m
Ans: B
26. In analysis of rate the quantity of dry mortar for 10 cubic metre brick work is taken as
(A) 10 m3
(B) 3 m3
(C) 0.3m3
(D) 1 m3
Ans: B
27. The technique of finding the fair price of an existing building or property at present is known as
(A) estimation
(B) valuation
(C) pnicing
(D) costing
Ans: B
28. The useful part ofliveable area of a building is known as
(A) Floor area
(B) Circulation area
(C) Plinth area
(D) Carpet area
Ans: D
29. The cost of a machine is Rs.50,000 with a useful life of 10 years. Its depreciated cost, after 5 years, if salvage value is Rs.10,000 on straight line basis will be
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 25,000
(C) Rs. 30,000
(D) Rs. 35,000
Ans: C
30. Which of the following is the most correct estimate?
(A) Plinth area estimate
(B) Cube rate estimate
(C) Detailed estimate
(D) Abstract estimate
Ans: C
31. The maximum strain energy stored at elastic limit per unit volume is known as
(A) proof resilience
(B) resilience
(C) modulus of resilience
(D) strain energy density
Ans: C
32. When load is acting in longitudinal direction and when a change in length takes place, the strain is known as
(A) linear strain
(B) lateral strain
(C) shear strain
(D) volumetric strain
Ans: A
33. The deflection of a beam will be reduced if the moment of Inertia of the beam is
(A) Increased
(C) Constant
(B) Decreased
(D) Zero
Ans: A
34. Compatibility conditions are essentially required to solve
(A) Substitute frame
(B) Complex truss
(C) Redundant frame
(D) Compound truss
Ans: C
35. Field channels are also called
(A) Supply channels
(B) Branch channels
(C) Lateral channels
(D) Waste channels
Ans: C
36. Euler critical load of a member is defined as
(A) The load which is just sufficient to maintain the column in a deflected shape
(B) The load which is required to collapse the entire column
(C) The load which is required to create initial crack in the column
(D) The load which is required to split the column into two pieces
Ans: A
37. Safeyield which is the maximum quantity of water, which can be supplied during a critical dry, period is also known as
(A) Firm yield
(B) Secondary yield
(C) Average yield
(D) Design yield
Ans: A
38. For undisturbed sampling, the area 'ratio for a thin walled' sampler should not normally exceed
(A) 15%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 35%
Ans: A
39. Consider the following statements:
In subsoil exploration programme the term "significant depth of exploration" is upto
1. the width of foundation
2. twice the width of foundation
3. the depth where the additional stress intensity is less than 20% of the overburden pressure
4. the depth where the additional stress intensity is less than 10% of the overburden pressure
5. hard rock level
Of these statements
(A) 1, 3 and 5 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 5 are correct
(C) 1 and 4 are correct
(D) 2 and 4 are correct
Ans: D
40. A soil is classified as 'GC' as per Indian Standard Soil Classification System. The percentage of fines in the soil is
(A) 0
(B) less than 5
(C) between 5 and 12
(D) more than 12
Ans: D
41. The soil compacted on the dry side. of optimum has ____________compared to that compacted on the wet side of optimum.
(A) less permeability and less strength
(B) less permeability and more strength
(C) more permeability and less strength
(D) more permeability and more strength
Ans: D
42. The width and depth of footing are 2 and 1.5 m respectively. The water table at the site is at a depth of 3m below the ground level. The water table correction factor for the calculation of the bearing capacity of soil is
(A) 0.875
(B) 1.000
(C) 0.925
(D) 0.500
Ans: A
43. The load carrying capacity of a bored pile in sand is about ___________times that of a driven pile.
(A) 2/3 to 3/4
(B) more than 5/4
(C) 1/2 to 2/3
(D) 3/4 to 5/4
Ans: C
44. The load carrying capacity of pile depends on
(A) shaft resistance
(B) point resistance
(C) shaft and point resistance
(D) pile capacity
Ans: C
45. A 30 cm diameter pile is depth 10 m into a homogeneous consolidated clay deposit. The safe load when the factor of safety is 2.50, unit cohesion is 40 kN/m2 and adhesion factor is 0.70 is
(A) 105.6 kN
(B) 211.2 kN
(C) 215.4 kN
(D) 150.8 kN
Ans: A
46. The total passive earth pressure per metre length against a retaining wall of height 4 m with backfill of unit weight 20 kN/m3 and angle of internal friction 30° will be
(A) 600 kN/m
(B) 120 kN/m
(C) 240 kN/m
(D) 480 kN/m
Ans: D
47. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the range of
(A) 0 - 1 mg/litre
(B) 1-10 mg/litre
(C) 20 - 100 mg/litre
(D) 100 - 1000 mg/litre
Ans: B
48. Hydraulically equivalent section of two sewers are such that they discharge at same rate laid on same grade when
(A) running full
(B) running half depth
(C) running quarter depth
(D) running three-fourth depth
Ans: A
49. A water purification works handles 50,000 m3/day of water which needs a chlorine (Chlorine demand) of 0.4 mg/l. The residual chlorine after 15 minutes of contact time is 0.2 mg/l. The chlorine dosage in mg/l is
(A) 0.2 mg/l
(B) 0.8 mg/l
(C) 4000 mg/l
(D) 0.6mg/l
Ans: D
50. Which of the following is not a water borne disease?
(A) Dysentery
(B) Cholera
(C) Typhoid
(D) Malaria
Ans: D
51. The techniques used to remove gaseous pollutants from an effluent stream
(A) Absorption, combustion, filtration
(B) Adsorption, catalytic treatment, scrubbing, centrifugal separation
(C) Absorption, adsorption, combustion, catalytic treatment
(D) Absorption, combustion, scrubbing, catalytic treatment, gravity settling.
Ans: C
52. If recirculation ratio (R/I) equal to 1, then recirculation factor (F) is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.5
(C) 2.0
(D) 1.65
Ans: D
53. In BOD test raw sewage is diluted. to 5%. The oxygen consumption by bacteria during 5 days experiment is 6 mg/l. The BOD5 is
(A) 30 mg/l
(B) 0.3 mg/l
(C) 120 mg/l
(D) 300 mg/l
Ans: C
54. In a flow net, the discharge is inversely proportional to
(A) coefficient of permeability
(B) head causing the flow
(C) number of equipotential drops
(D) number of flow channels
Ans: C
55. Resistance of aggregate to failure by impact is called
(A) Hardness
(B) Tenacity
(C) Toughness
(D) Soundness
Ans: C
56. In case of volume batching a smaller mass of sand occupying the fixed volume of the measuring box is due to which of the following effect?
(A) Bulking
(B) Hardening
(C) Softening
(D) Texture modification
Ans: A
57. Which type of formwork is more economical for tall structure constructions?
(A) Flex system formwork
(B) Wall/column formwork
(C) Heavy duty tower system
(D) Climbing formwork
Ans: D
58. If the compaction factor is 0.95, the workability of concrete is
(A) very low
(B) low
(C) medium
(D) high
Ans: D
59. For good performance of a construction joint, the material used 'between the old and new concrete surfaces is
(A) a welded wire fabric
(B) synthetic fibres
(C) synthetic resins
(D) a polymer bonding agent
Ans: D
60. The transverse reinforcement to be provided at the top of the slab, over the full effective width of flanged beam should not be less than
(A) 40 percentage of main steel at mid span of the beam
(B) 50 percentage of main steel at mid span of the beam
(C) 60 percentage of main steel at mid span of the beam
(D) 70 percentage of main steel at mid span of the beam
Ans: C
61. When the bending moment at the section changes its sign, as may occur in the span of a continuous beam with moving loads in a bridge girder the type of reinforcement required at that section will be
(A) compression reinforcement
(B) tension reinforcement
(C) vertical stirrups
(D) side face reinforcement
Ans: A
62. The critical section for punching shear in an isolated pad footing of effective depth d will be located at
(A) the face of the column itself
(B) d distance alround from the face of column
(C) d/2 distance alround from the face of column
(D) 2 d distance alround from the face of column
63. The modular ratio for M 35 grade of concrete is
(A) 8.11
(B) 9.33
(C) 10.98
(D) 13.33
Ans: A
64. Which type of beam section among the followingwill fail in a catastrophic manner?
(A) Balanced section
(B) Doubly reinforced section
(C) Over-reinforced section
(D) Under-reinforced section
Ans: C
(A) Increased
(C) Constant
(B) Decreased
(D) Zero
Ans: A
34. Compatibility conditions are essentially required to solve
(A) Substitute frame
(B) Complex truss
(C) Redundant frame
(D) Compound truss
Ans: C
35. Field channels are also called
(A) Supply channels
(B) Branch channels
(C) Lateral channels
(D) Waste channels
Ans: C
36. Euler critical load of a member is defined as
(A) The load which is just sufficient to maintain the column in a deflected shape
(B) The load which is required to collapse the entire column
(C) The load which is required to create initial crack in the column
(D) The load which is required to split the column into two pieces
Ans: A
37. Safeyield which is the maximum quantity of water, which can be supplied during a critical dry, period is also known as
(A) Firm yield
(B) Secondary yield
(C) Average yield
(D) Design yield
Ans: A
38. For undisturbed sampling, the area 'ratio for a thin walled' sampler should not normally exceed
(A) 15%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 35%
Ans: A
39. Consider the following statements:
In subsoil exploration programme the term "significant depth of exploration" is upto
1. the width of foundation
2. twice the width of foundation
3. the depth where the additional stress intensity is less than 20% of the overburden pressure
4. the depth where the additional stress intensity is less than 10% of the overburden pressure
5. hard rock level
Of these statements
(A) 1, 3 and 5 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 5 are correct
(C) 1 and 4 are correct
(D) 2 and 4 are correct
Ans: D
40. A soil is classified as 'GC' as per Indian Standard Soil Classification System. The percentage of fines in the soil is
(A) 0
(B) less than 5
(C) between 5 and 12
(D) more than 12
Ans: D
41. The soil compacted on the dry side. of optimum has ____________compared to that compacted on the wet side of optimum.
(A) less permeability and less strength
(B) less permeability and more strength
(C) more permeability and less strength
(D) more permeability and more strength
Ans: D
42. The width and depth of footing are 2 and 1.5 m respectively. The water table at the site is at a depth of 3m below the ground level. The water table correction factor for the calculation of the bearing capacity of soil is
(A) 0.875
(B) 1.000
(C) 0.925
(D) 0.500
Ans: A
43. The load carrying capacity of a bored pile in sand is about ___________times that of a driven pile.
(A) 2/3 to 3/4
(B) more than 5/4
(C) 1/2 to 2/3
(D) 3/4 to 5/4
Ans: C
44. The load carrying capacity of pile depends on
(A) shaft resistance
(B) point resistance
(C) shaft and point resistance
(D) pile capacity
Ans: C
45. A 30 cm diameter pile is depth 10 m into a homogeneous consolidated clay deposit. The safe load when the factor of safety is 2.50, unit cohesion is 40 kN/m2 and adhesion factor is 0.70 is
(A) 105.6 kN
(B) 211.2 kN
(C) 215.4 kN
(D) 150.8 kN
Ans: A
46. The total passive earth pressure per metre length against a retaining wall of height 4 m with backfill of unit weight 20 kN/m3 and angle of internal friction 30° will be
(A) 600 kN/m
(B) 120 kN/m
(C) 240 kN/m
(D) 480 kN/m
Ans: D
47. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the range of
(A) 0 - 1 mg/litre
(B) 1-10 mg/litre
(C) 20 - 100 mg/litre
(D) 100 - 1000 mg/litre
Ans: B
48. Hydraulically equivalent section of two sewers are such that they discharge at same rate laid on same grade when
(A) running full
(B) running half depth
(C) running quarter depth
(D) running three-fourth depth
Ans: A
49. A water purification works handles 50,000 m3/day of water which needs a chlorine (Chlorine demand) of 0.4 mg/l. The residual chlorine after 15 minutes of contact time is 0.2 mg/l. The chlorine dosage in mg/l is
(A) 0.2 mg/l
(B) 0.8 mg/l
(C) 4000 mg/l
(D) 0.6mg/l
Ans: D
50. Which of the following is not a water borne disease?
(A) Dysentery
(B) Cholera
(C) Typhoid
(D) Malaria
Ans: D
51. The techniques used to remove gaseous pollutants from an effluent stream
(A) Absorption, combustion, filtration
(B) Adsorption, catalytic treatment, scrubbing, centrifugal separation
(C) Absorption, adsorption, combustion, catalytic treatment
(D) Absorption, combustion, scrubbing, catalytic treatment, gravity settling.
Ans: C
52. If recirculation ratio (R/I) equal to 1, then recirculation factor (F) is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.5
(C) 2.0
(D) 1.65
Ans: D
53. In BOD test raw sewage is diluted. to 5%. The oxygen consumption by bacteria during 5 days experiment is 6 mg/l. The BOD5 is
(A) 30 mg/l
(B) 0.3 mg/l
(C) 120 mg/l
(D) 300 mg/l
Ans: C
54. In a flow net, the discharge is inversely proportional to
(A) coefficient of permeability
(B) head causing the flow
(C) number of equipotential drops
(D) number of flow channels
Ans: C
55. Resistance of aggregate to failure by impact is called
(A) Hardness
(B) Tenacity
(C) Toughness
(D) Soundness
Ans: C
56. In case of volume batching a smaller mass of sand occupying the fixed volume of the measuring box is due to which of the following effect?
(A) Bulking
(B) Hardening
(C) Softening
(D) Texture modification
Ans: A
57. Which type of formwork is more economical for tall structure constructions?
(A) Flex system formwork
(B) Wall/column formwork
(C) Heavy duty tower system
(D) Climbing formwork
Ans: D
58. If the compaction factor is 0.95, the workability of concrete is
(A) very low
(B) low
(C) medium
(D) high
Ans: D
59. For good performance of a construction joint, the material used 'between the old and new concrete surfaces is
(A) a welded wire fabric
(B) synthetic fibres
(C) synthetic resins
(D) a polymer bonding agent
Ans: D
60. The transverse reinforcement to be provided at the top of the slab, over the full effective width of flanged beam should not be less than
(A) 40 percentage of main steel at mid span of the beam
(B) 50 percentage of main steel at mid span of the beam
(C) 60 percentage of main steel at mid span of the beam
(D) 70 percentage of main steel at mid span of the beam
Ans: C
61. When the bending moment at the section changes its sign, as may occur in the span of a continuous beam with moving loads in a bridge girder the type of reinforcement required at that section will be
(A) compression reinforcement
(B) tension reinforcement
(C) vertical stirrups
(D) side face reinforcement
Ans: A
62. The critical section for punching shear in an isolated pad footing of effective depth d will be located at
(A) the face of the column itself
(B) d distance alround from the face of column
(C) d/2 distance alround from the face of column
(D) 2 d distance alround from the face of column
63. The modular ratio for M 35 grade of concrete is
(A) 8.11
(B) 9.33
(C) 10.98
(D) 13.33
Ans: A
64. Which type of beam section among the followingwill fail in a catastrophic manner?
(A) Balanced section
(B) Doubly reinforced section
(C) Over-reinforced section
(D) Under-reinforced section
Ans: C
65. The maximum effective slenderness ratio of a member which is always in tension (other than pretensioned member) is
(A) 180
(C) 350
(B) 250
(D) 400
Ans: D
66. The minimum number of battens in a built up column is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans: C
67. A roof truss has to carry snow loads in addition to wind loads. Which among the following pitch values is said to be economical?
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/5
(D) 1/6
Ans: B
68. The pattern of actual shear stress distribution across the depth of a beam
(A) varies parabolically
(B) varies cubically
(C) varies linearly
(D) has no variation of ordinates
Ans: A
69. In prestressed concrete, for post tensioned members, the minimum 28 days compressive strength of concrete prescribed in IS 1343 is
(A) 25MPa
(B) 30 MPa
(C) 35MPa
(D) 40 MPa
Ans: B
70. A masonry chimney is of hollow circular section with height to outer diameter ratio of 5. As per IS 875 -1987, the force coefficient for the wind force calculation is
(A) 0.8
(B) 0.9
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.2
Ans: A
71. A retarding basin type of flood control reservoir is the one which is provided with
(A) Uncontrolled outlets and spillway
(B) Uncontrolled outlets but controlled spillway
(C) Controlled outlets but uncontrolled spillway
(D) Controlled outlets and spillway
Ans: A
72. The pattern of shear stress distribution across a circular beam cross section is
(A) Straight
(B) Parabolic
(C) Elliptic
(D) Hyperbolic
Ans: B
73. In a CU test, the diameter of Mohr Circle for total stresses at incipient failure condition is 200 kPa to a scale. If the pore pressure at failure is 50 kPa, the diameter of Mohr Circle for effective stresses at failure drawn to the same scale is equal to
(A) 150 kPa
(B) 200 kPa
(C) 250 kPa
(D) 300 kPa
Ans: B
(A) 180
(C) 350
(B) 250
(D) 400
Ans: D
66. The minimum number of battens in a built up column is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans: C
67. A roof truss has to carry snow loads in addition to wind loads. Which among the following pitch values is said to be economical?
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/5
(D) 1/6
Ans: B
68. The pattern of actual shear stress distribution across the depth of a beam
(A) varies parabolically
(B) varies cubically
(C) varies linearly
(D) has no variation of ordinates
Ans: A
69. In prestressed concrete, for post tensioned members, the minimum 28 days compressive strength of concrete prescribed in IS 1343 is
(A) 25MPa
(B) 30 MPa
(C) 35MPa
(D) 40 MPa
Ans: B
70. A masonry chimney is of hollow circular section with height to outer diameter ratio of 5. As per IS 875 -1987, the force coefficient for the wind force calculation is
(A) 0.8
(B) 0.9
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.2
Ans: A
71. A retarding basin type of flood control reservoir is the one which is provided with
(A) Uncontrolled outlets and spillway
(B) Uncontrolled outlets but controlled spillway
(C) Controlled outlets but uncontrolled spillway
(D) Controlled outlets and spillway
Ans: A
72. The pattern of shear stress distribution across a circular beam cross section is
(A) Straight
(B) Parabolic
(C) Elliptic
(D) Hyperbolic
Ans: B
73. In a CU test, the diameter of Mohr Circle for total stresses at incipient failure condition is 200 kPa to a scale. If the pore pressure at failure is 50 kPa, the diameter of Mohr Circle for effective stresses at failure drawn to the same scale is equal to
(A) 150 kPa
(B) 200 kPa
(C) 250 kPa
(D) 300 kPa
Ans: B
74. Which one of the following is a flexible outlet?
(A) Submerged pipe outlet
(B) Kennedy's gauge outlet
(C) Gibb's outlet
(D) Open flume outlet
Ans: B
75. The 4 hr unit hydrograph of a basin can be approximated as a triangle with a base period of 48 hour and peak ordinate of 200 m3/s. Then the area of the basin is
(A) 864 Km2
(B) 1728 Km2
(C) 3456 Km2
(D) 5184 Km2
Ans: B
76. In the channel flood routing by Muskingum method, the values of the routing coefficients Co and C1, are estimated as -0.2 and 0.5 respectively. The value of third coefficient C2 would be
(A) -0.5
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.3
(D) 0.7
Ans: D
77. Leaching is a process by which
(A) Water is excessively pumped from a water logged area
(B) Excess salt in the soil pushed down by standing water above the soil
(C) Improving the soil structure and texture by adding suitable chemicals
(D) Sodium ions are removed from Irrigation water
Ans: B
78. The characteristic feature of a barrage is
(A) provision of raised crest
(B) creation of storage reservoir on U/S
(C) provision of series of gates across the river
(D) that is built in deltas areas only
Ans: C
79. The velocity of drainage water in syphon aqueduct is normally limited to
(A) 1 to 2 m/s
(B) 2 to 3 m/s
(C) 3 to 4 m/s
(D) 4 to 5 m/s
Ans: B
80. For higher silt carrying capacity, the lined canal section should be
(A) trapezoidal
(B) rectangular
(C) circular
(D) horse shoe
Ans: C
81. The side slope, generally adopted for a trapezoidal surface drain in alluvial soil is
(A) 0.5: 1
(B) 1 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 3: 1
Ans: B
82. The soil moisture which is useful for plant's growth is
(A) Gravity water
(B) Capillary water
(C) Hygroscopicwater
(D) Chemical water
Ans: B
83. Capacity of a 3.75 metre traffic lane is
(A) 1200 PCU
(B) 3000 PCU
(C) 1500 PCU
(D) 1000 PCU
Ans: D
84. The main cause of ro.adaccident in India is due to
(A) vehicle brake failure
(B) improper geometric design
(C) speed violation
(D) uneven pavement surface characteristics
Ans: C
85. The purpose of a 'median' is to eliminate
(A) Head on collision
(B) Side swipe
(C) Rear end collision
(D) Nose to tail collision
Ans: A
86. The disadvantage of 'Diamond junction" is
(A) Two parallel roads are required
(B) Two crossing angles are required
(C) Two over bridges are required
(D) No provision for easy right turn
Ans: D
(A) Submerged pipe outlet
(B) Kennedy's gauge outlet
(C) Gibb's outlet
(D) Open flume outlet
Ans: B
75. The 4 hr unit hydrograph of a basin can be approximated as a triangle with a base period of 48 hour and peak ordinate of 200 m3/s. Then the area of the basin is
(A) 864 Km2
(B) 1728 Km2
(C) 3456 Km2
(D) 5184 Km2
Ans: B
76. In the channel flood routing by Muskingum method, the values of the routing coefficients Co and C1, are estimated as -0.2 and 0.5 respectively. The value of third coefficient C2 would be
(A) -0.5
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.3
(D) 0.7
Ans: D
77. Leaching is a process by which
(A) Water is excessively pumped from a water logged area
(B) Excess salt in the soil pushed down by standing water above the soil
(C) Improving the soil structure and texture by adding suitable chemicals
(D) Sodium ions are removed from Irrigation water
Ans: B
78. The characteristic feature of a barrage is
(A) provision of raised crest
(B) creation of storage reservoir on U/S
(C) provision of series of gates across the river
(D) that is built in deltas areas only
Ans: C
79. The velocity of drainage water in syphon aqueduct is normally limited to
(A) 1 to 2 m/s
(B) 2 to 3 m/s
(C) 3 to 4 m/s
(D) 4 to 5 m/s
Ans: B
80. For higher silt carrying capacity, the lined canal section should be
(A) trapezoidal
(B) rectangular
(C) circular
(D) horse shoe
Ans: C
81. The side slope, generally adopted for a trapezoidal surface drain in alluvial soil is
(A) 0.5: 1
(B) 1 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 3: 1
Ans: B
82. The soil moisture which is useful for plant's growth is
(A) Gravity water
(B) Capillary water
(C) Hygroscopicwater
(D) Chemical water
Ans: B
83. Capacity of a 3.75 metre traffic lane is
(A) 1200 PCU
(B) 3000 PCU
(C) 1500 PCU
(D) 1000 PCU
Ans: D
84. The main cause of ro.adaccident in India is due to
(A) vehicle brake failure
(B) improper geometric design
(C) speed violation
(D) uneven pavement surface characteristics
Ans: C
85. The purpose of a 'median' is to eliminate
(A) Head on collision
(B) Side swipe
(C) Rear end collision
(D) Nose to tail collision
Ans: A
86. The disadvantage of 'Diamond junction" is
(A) Two parallel roads are required
(B) Two crossing angles are required
(C) Two over bridges are required
(D) No provision for easy right turn
Ans: D
87. For the most effective traffic control, adopt
(A) More number of traffic signs
(B) More varieties of traffic signs
(C) Limited number of traffic signs
(D) Less number of informatory signs
Ans: C
88. Recommended value of camber for a WBM road in heavy rainfall area is
(A) 1 in 50
(B) 1 in 60
(C) 1 in 40
(D) 1 in 33
Ans: D
89. For a good highway drainage, the highest level of ground water table below subgrade, preferably is
(A) 0.30 m
(B) 0.60 m
(C) 0.90 m
(D) 1.20 m
Ans: D
90. Seal coat in highway maintenance comes under
(A) routine maintenance
(B) rehabilitation and strengthening
(C) periodic maintenance
(D) strengthening
Ans: A
91. The pre stress is induced in the cross section of a pretensioned prestressed concrete member due to the
(A) bond between tendons and concrete
(B) end anchor bolts
(C) end anchor plates
(D) bond stress and anchor plate.
Ans: A
92. The corrected length of a runway 2075 m after applying correction for gradient is
(A) 2101 m
(B) 2169 m
(C) 2179 m
(D) 2189 m
Ans: C
93. The order of funding for Inland Water Transport (IWT) in eighth five year plan for modernisation is
(A) 250 crore
(B) 150 crore
(C) 190 crore
(D) 200 crore
Ans: D
94. Runway orientation (alignment) should be strictly
(A) parallel to a main highway in the locality
(B) no need to bother about highway alignment
(C) perpendicular to highway
(D) neither parallel nor perpendicular but slightly inclined to highway alignment
Ans: D
95. Out of the four types of gradients for laying railway tracks, which is STEEPEST?
(A) Ruling Gradient
(B) Momentum Gradient
(C) Pushing Gradient
(D) Station yard Gradient
Ans: C
96. The wooden or rubber poles or poles placed in front of docks or wheel, to prevent damage to ship side while mooring they are called as
(A) Fenders
(B) Moorings
(C) Bulk heads
(D) Dolphins
Ans: A
97. If the earliest start of the successor is 43 and the earliest start of activity considered is 36. Determine its free float if its duration is 2
(A) 43
(B) 41
(C) 7
(D) 5
Ans: D
98. Numbering of events in a network was devised by
(A) Henry Gantt
(B) D.R. Fulherson
(C) Chris Hendrichson
(D) Du Pont
Ans: B
99. The factor of safety with respect to cohesion of an embankment of height 6 m is 1.5. The critical height of the embankment is
(A) 4m
(B) 6m
(C) 9m
(D) 12m
Ans: C
(A) More number of traffic signs
(B) More varieties of traffic signs
(C) Limited number of traffic signs
(D) Less number of informatory signs
Ans: C
88. Recommended value of camber for a WBM road in heavy rainfall area is
(A) 1 in 50
(B) 1 in 60
(C) 1 in 40
(D) 1 in 33
Ans: D
89. For a good highway drainage, the highest level of ground water table below subgrade, preferably is
(A) 0.30 m
(B) 0.60 m
(C) 0.90 m
(D) 1.20 m
Ans: D
90. Seal coat in highway maintenance comes under
(A) routine maintenance
(B) rehabilitation and strengthening
(C) periodic maintenance
(D) strengthening
Ans: A
91. The pre stress is induced in the cross section of a pretensioned prestressed concrete member due to the
(A) bond between tendons and concrete
(B) end anchor bolts
(C) end anchor plates
(D) bond stress and anchor plate.
Ans: A
92. The corrected length of a runway 2075 m after applying correction for gradient is
(A) 2101 m
(B) 2169 m
(C) 2179 m
(D) 2189 m
Ans: C
93. The order of funding for Inland Water Transport (IWT) in eighth five year plan for modernisation is
(A) 250 crore
(B) 150 crore
(C) 190 crore
(D) 200 crore
Ans: D
94. Runway orientation (alignment) should be strictly
(A) parallel to a main highway in the locality
(B) no need to bother about highway alignment
(C) perpendicular to highway
(D) neither parallel nor perpendicular but slightly inclined to highway alignment
Ans: D
95. Out of the four types of gradients for laying railway tracks, which is STEEPEST?
(A) Ruling Gradient
(B) Momentum Gradient
(C) Pushing Gradient
(D) Station yard Gradient
Ans: C
96. The wooden or rubber poles or poles placed in front of docks or wheel, to prevent damage to ship side while mooring they are called as
(A) Fenders
(B) Moorings
(C) Bulk heads
(D) Dolphins
Ans: A
97. If the earliest start of the successor is 43 and the earliest start of activity considered is 36. Determine its free float if its duration is 2
(A) 43
(B) 41
(C) 7
(D) 5
Ans: D
98. Numbering of events in a network was devised by
(A) Henry Gantt
(B) D.R. Fulherson
(C) Chris Hendrichson
(D) Du Pont
Ans: B
99. The factor of safety with respect to cohesion of an embankment of height 6 m is 1.5. The critical height of the embankment is
(A) 4m
(B) 6m
(C) 9m
(D) 12m
Ans: C
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