CHEMICAL ENGINEERING- PAGE 3
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING MCQ- PAGE 3
1. Which among the following solvents are used to extract aromatics from lube distillates and deasphalted oil ?
(A) Furfural (B) Aluminium chloride (C) Methyl Isobutyl Ketone (MIBK) (D) Methyl Ethyl Ketone (MEK)
Ans: A
2. Which one of the following petroleum is the most suitable for the preparation of Bitumen
(A) Paraffin (B) Bitumen can not be manufactured from crude petrolium (C) Naphthene (D) Intermediate
Ans: C
3. Olefin reacts with .......... in alkylation processes.
(A) Aromatics (B) Iso Parafins (C) Normal Parafins (D) Naphthenes
Ans: B
4. Paraffin waxes are graded by its ....
(A) Ductility (B) Specific gravity (C) Melting point (D) Viscosity
Ans: C
5. Bakelite is produced by condensation polymerisation of .......... ?
(A) Urea & Formaldehyde (B) Phenol & Acetaldehyde (C) Phenol & Formaldehyde (D) Propylene
Ans: C
6. Which one of the following is an example of elastomer ?
(A) Polystyrene (B) Urea formaldehyde (C) Phenol formaldehyde (D) Thiokol
Ans: D
7. Which one among the following rubber is used for preparation of tubeless tyre, a co-polymer of isoprene & isobutylene ?
(A) Silicone (B) Nitrile (C) Neoprene (D) Butyl
Ans: D
8. Among the following, which one is referred as mastication of rubber ?
(A) Depression at its freezing point (B) Improving its curing rate (C) Its softening (D) A treatment to retard its deterioration
Ans: C
9. Which one of the following is a co-polymer of vinyl and vinylidene ?
(A) Orlon (B) Saran (C) Decron (D) Terelene
Ans: A
10. Condensation of Phosgene and Bisphenol-A gives ..........
(A) Polysulphone (B) Polyester (C) Polyurethane (D) Polycarbonate
Ans: D
11. Anti-tacking properties is highest in ..........
(A) Phenolic resin (B) Epoxy resin (C) Alkyd resin (D) Melamine formaldehyde resin
Ans: D
12. Which one of the following is an example at thermosetting polymer ?
(A) Phenolic resin (B) Polystyrene (C) Polyethylene (D) Polyvinyl chloride
Ans: A
13. .......... is not an example at bio-polymer.
(A) Nucleic acid (B) Starch (C) Rubber (D) Protiens
Ans: C
14. Dielectric constant of petroleum product is .....
(A) Zero (B) Equal to that of porcelain (C) More than that of porcelain (D) Less than that of porcelain
Ans: D
15. Viscosity index of an oil indicates ...
(A) The viscosity at 100° F (B) The rate of change of viscosity with temperature
(C) The rate of change of viscosity with pressure (D) The rate of change of specific gravity with pressure
Ans: B
16. Correct IUPAC name of Isoprene is ..........
(A) 2-methyl -1, 3-butadiens (B) 1, 3-Butadiens (C) 1, 2 - Butadiens (D) 1, 3 - Pentadiene
Ans: A
17. Raw materials for the production of styrene are ...
(A) Toluene and propylene (B) Benzene and ethelene (C) m-xylene and ethylene (D) Toluene and ethanol
Ans: B
18. An alkyd resin, Glyptal polymer is obtained by the reaction at glycerol with
(A) Acetic acid (B) Malonic acid (C) Maleic acid (D) Phthalic acid
Ans: D
19. Gas phase oxidation at maleic anhydride produces ..........
(A) Naphthalene (B) Isobutene (C) n-Butenes (D) o-Xylene
Ans: C
20. Which among the following is the measure of its reid vapour pressure
(A) Cloud point (B) Vapour locking tendency (C) Carbon residue (D) Pour point
Ans: B
21. .......... is petrolatum (A) Diethyl ether
(B) Petroleum ether (C) Petroleum coke (D) Mixture of microcrystalline wax in viscous hydrocarbon liquids
Ans: D
22. Reforming is mainly referred as
(A) Hydrogenation of naphthalenes (B) Dehydrogenation of naphthalenes (C) Saturation of olefins (D) Hydrocracking of paraffins
Ans: B
23. .......... column is referred as the most widely used crude topping column in refineries
(A) Pefforated plate (B) Bubble-cap (C) Packed bed (D) Fluidised bed
Ans: B
24. Highest gum forming tendency in gasoline is of ...
(A) Naphthalenes (B) Diolefins (C) Aromatics (D) Paraffins
Ans: B
25. Which one of the following hydrocarbons has the poorest oxidation stability ?
(A) Aromatics (B) Paraffin (C) Olefin (D) Naphthene
Ans: C
26. Flash point (< 50° C) in gasoline is determined by ....
(A) Saybolt chromometer (B) Karl-fischer apparatus (C) Abel apparatus (D) Pensky-Marten’s apparatus
Ans: C
27. Which among the following is the parameter for grading paraffin waxes ?
(A) Melting point (B) Viscosity (C) Penetration number (D) Specific gravity
Ans: A
28. Which one among the following has the highest Viscosity at a given temperature ?
(A) Fuel oil (B) Petrol (C) Naphtha (D) Light diesel oil
Ans: A
29. Indian oil fields produces cruid oil are predominantly .......... in nature.
(A) Mixed base (B) Asphaltic (C) Naphthenic (D) Paraffinic
Ans: B
30. Sulphur in crude oil is mainly determined by which of the following methods ?
(A) Bomb calorimeter (B) Duma (C) Kjeldahl (D) Junkar’s calorimeter
Ans: A
31. Why detergent is added as an addictive in engine lubricating oil ?
(A) To reduce deposit formation (B) To increase oxidation stability (C) To prevent rusting (D) To keep contaminants in suspension
Ans: A
32. Which one of the following is oxygenated compound ?
(A) Indole (B) Methyl mercaptan (C) Pymole (D) Naphthenic acid
Ans: D
33. Mercaptans are .......... among the following.
(A) Not corrosive (B) Decrease the octane number of gasoline (C) Desirable in gasoline (D) Low boiling oxygen compounds
Ans: B
34. Maximum octane number among the following hydrocarbon is of ....
(A) Cyclohexane (B) Isohexane (C) Hexane (D) Benzene
Ans: D
35. Which among the following is correct for fire point at a gives sample ?
(A) It is equal to flash point (B) It is less than the flash point
(C) It is equal to or less than the flash point (D) It is higher than the flash point
Ans: D
36. Which among the following petroleum products has minimum carbon-hydrogen ratio (by weight)
(A) Furnase Oil (B) Aviation Tarbine Fuel (ATF) (C) Gasoline (D) High speed diesel oil
Ans: C
37. Which one among the following has maximum Viscosity at a given temperature ?
(A) Kerosine (B) Furnace oil (C) High speed diesel oil (D) Motor spirit
Ans: B
38. Motor fuel gasoline is composed of .....
(A) Hexane through decane (B) Ethane through decane (C) Methane through decane (D) Propane through decane
Ans: A
39. While smoke coming out of the chimney of a furnace indicates the use of .....
(A) Low excess air (B) Gaseous fuel in furnace (C) Liquid fuel in the furnace (D) Very high excess air
Ans: D
40. Which one of the following is not a chemical coagulant ?
(A) Hydrated lime (B) Ferrous sulphate (C) Alluminium sulphate (D) Chloramine
Ans: B
41. The ratio of oxygen available to the oxyten required for stabilization of sewage is called ....
(A) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) (B) Relative stability (C) Bacterial Stability Factor (BSF) (D) Oxygen ion concentration
Ans: B
42. “Pneumoconiosis” is a disease caused by the inhalation of .......... dust.
(A) Uranium ore (B) Iron ore (C) Lime (D) Coal
Ans: D
43. Color test of water is done with an instrument called ….
(A) Turbidimeter (B) Tinctometer (C) Colorimeter (D) Electro-chemical cell
Ans: B
44. Main pollutant in the manufacturing of various superphosphates are the .......... compounds.
(A) Phosphorous (B) Sulphur (C) Fluorine (D) Chlorine
Ans: C
45. Reaction with ultraviolet light is responsible for the production of ....
(A) Nitrogen dioxide (B) Sulphure trioxide (C) Ozone (D) Smog
Ans: C
46. In Clean Development Mehanism (CDM), terminology, CER means .....
(A) Carbon Emmission Reduction (B) Certified Emission Reduction (C) Carbon Emmission Rating (D) Clean Environment Rating
Ans: B
47. Aerosol is ....
(A) Carbon particles of microscopic size (B) Dispersion of small solid/liquid particles in gaseous media
(C) Finely devided ash particles (D) Diffused liquid particles
Ans: B
48. Dissolved oxygen content in river / water streams is …..
(A) Maximum at midnight (B) Same throughout the day (C) Minimum at noon (D) Maximum at noon
Ans: D
49. Imhoff Cone is used to measure the total .......... content in sewage.
(A) Settleable solids (B) Inorganic solids (C) Non-settleable solilds (D) Organic solids
Ans: A
50. The .......... plume is chracteristic of neutral or slightly stable atmospheric conditions.
(A) Coning (B) Looping (C) Lofting (D) Fanning
Ans: A
(A) Furfural (B) Aluminium chloride (C) Methyl Isobutyl Ketone (MIBK) (D) Methyl Ethyl Ketone (MEK)
Ans: A
2. Which one of the following petroleum is the most suitable for the preparation of Bitumen
(A) Paraffin (B) Bitumen can not be manufactured from crude petrolium (C) Naphthene (D) Intermediate
Ans: C
3. Olefin reacts with .......... in alkylation processes.
(A) Aromatics (B) Iso Parafins (C) Normal Parafins (D) Naphthenes
Ans: B
4. Paraffin waxes are graded by its ....
(A) Ductility (B) Specific gravity (C) Melting point (D) Viscosity
Ans: C
5. Bakelite is produced by condensation polymerisation of .......... ?
(A) Urea & Formaldehyde (B) Phenol & Acetaldehyde (C) Phenol & Formaldehyde (D) Propylene
Ans: C
6. Which one of the following is an example of elastomer ?
(A) Polystyrene (B) Urea formaldehyde (C) Phenol formaldehyde (D) Thiokol
Ans: D
7. Which one among the following rubber is used for preparation of tubeless tyre, a co-polymer of isoprene & isobutylene ?
(A) Silicone (B) Nitrile (C) Neoprene (D) Butyl
Ans: D
8. Among the following, which one is referred as mastication of rubber ?
(A) Depression at its freezing point (B) Improving its curing rate (C) Its softening (D) A treatment to retard its deterioration
Ans: C
9. Which one of the following is a co-polymer of vinyl and vinylidene ?
(A) Orlon (B) Saran (C) Decron (D) Terelene
Ans: A
10. Condensation of Phosgene and Bisphenol-A gives ..........
(A) Polysulphone (B) Polyester (C) Polyurethane (D) Polycarbonate
Ans: D
11. Anti-tacking properties is highest in ..........
(A) Phenolic resin (B) Epoxy resin (C) Alkyd resin (D) Melamine formaldehyde resin
Ans: D
12. Which one of the following is an example at thermosetting polymer ?
(A) Phenolic resin (B) Polystyrene (C) Polyethylene (D) Polyvinyl chloride
Ans: A
13. .......... is not an example at bio-polymer.
(A) Nucleic acid (B) Starch (C) Rubber (D) Protiens
Ans: C
14. Dielectric constant of petroleum product is .....
(A) Zero (B) Equal to that of porcelain (C) More than that of porcelain (D) Less than that of porcelain
Ans: D
15. Viscosity index of an oil indicates ...
(A) The viscosity at 100° F (B) The rate of change of viscosity with temperature
(C) The rate of change of viscosity with pressure (D) The rate of change of specific gravity with pressure
Ans: B
16. Correct IUPAC name of Isoprene is ..........
(A) 2-methyl -1, 3-butadiens (B) 1, 3-Butadiens (C) 1, 2 - Butadiens (D) 1, 3 - Pentadiene
Ans: A
17. Raw materials for the production of styrene are ...
(A) Toluene and propylene (B) Benzene and ethelene (C) m-xylene and ethylene (D) Toluene and ethanol
Ans: B
18. An alkyd resin, Glyptal polymer is obtained by the reaction at glycerol with
(A) Acetic acid (B) Malonic acid (C) Maleic acid (D) Phthalic acid
Ans: D
19. Gas phase oxidation at maleic anhydride produces ..........
(A) Naphthalene (B) Isobutene (C) n-Butenes (D) o-Xylene
Ans: C
20. Which among the following is the measure of its reid vapour pressure
(A) Cloud point (B) Vapour locking tendency (C) Carbon residue (D) Pour point
Ans: B
21. .......... is petrolatum (A) Diethyl ether
(B) Petroleum ether (C) Petroleum coke (D) Mixture of microcrystalline wax in viscous hydrocarbon liquids
Ans: D
22. Reforming is mainly referred as
(A) Hydrogenation of naphthalenes (B) Dehydrogenation of naphthalenes (C) Saturation of olefins (D) Hydrocracking of paraffins
Ans: B
23. .......... column is referred as the most widely used crude topping column in refineries
(A) Pefforated plate (B) Bubble-cap (C) Packed bed (D) Fluidised bed
Ans: B
24. Highest gum forming tendency in gasoline is of ...
(A) Naphthalenes (B) Diolefins (C) Aromatics (D) Paraffins
Ans: B
25. Which one of the following hydrocarbons has the poorest oxidation stability ?
(A) Aromatics (B) Paraffin (C) Olefin (D) Naphthene
Ans: C
26. Flash point (< 50° C) in gasoline is determined by ....
(A) Saybolt chromometer (B) Karl-fischer apparatus (C) Abel apparatus (D) Pensky-Marten’s apparatus
Ans: C
27. Which among the following is the parameter for grading paraffin waxes ?
(A) Melting point (B) Viscosity (C) Penetration number (D) Specific gravity
Ans: A
28. Which one among the following has the highest Viscosity at a given temperature ?
(A) Fuel oil (B) Petrol (C) Naphtha (D) Light diesel oil
Ans: A
29. Indian oil fields produces cruid oil are predominantly .......... in nature.
(A) Mixed base (B) Asphaltic (C) Naphthenic (D) Paraffinic
Ans: B
30. Sulphur in crude oil is mainly determined by which of the following methods ?
(A) Bomb calorimeter (B) Duma (C) Kjeldahl (D) Junkar’s calorimeter
Ans: A
31. Why detergent is added as an addictive in engine lubricating oil ?
(A) To reduce deposit formation (B) To increase oxidation stability (C) To prevent rusting (D) To keep contaminants in suspension
Ans: A
32. Which one of the following is oxygenated compound ?
(A) Indole (B) Methyl mercaptan (C) Pymole (D) Naphthenic acid
Ans: D
33. Mercaptans are .......... among the following.
(A) Not corrosive (B) Decrease the octane number of gasoline (C) Desirable in gasoline (D) Low boiling oxygen compounds
Ans: B
34. Maximum octane number among the following hydrocarbon is of ....
(A) Cyclohexane (B) Isohexane (C) Hexane (D) Benzene
Ans: D
35. Which among the following is correct for fire point at a gives sample ?
(A) It is equal to flash point (B) It is less than the flash point
(C) It is equal to or less than the flash point (D) It is higher than the flash point
Ans: D
36. Which among the following petroleum products has minimum carbon-hydrogen ratio (by weight)
(A) Furnase Oil (B) Aviation Tarbine Fuel (ATF) (C) Gasoline (D) High speed diesel oil
Ans: C
37. Which one among the following has maximum Viscosity at a given temperature ?
(A) Kerosine (B) Furnace oil (C) High speed diesel oil (D) Motor spirit
Ans: B
38. Motor fuel gasoline is composed of .....
(A) Hexane through decane (B) Ethane through decane (C) Methane through decane (D) Propane through decane
Ans: A
39. While smoke coming out of the chimney of a furnace indicates the use of .....
(A) Low excess air (B) Gaseous fuel in furnace (C) Liquid fuel in the furnace (D) Very high excess air
Ans: D
40. Which one of the following is not a chemical coagulant ?
(A) Hydrated lime (B) Ferrous sulphate (C) Alluminium sulphate (D) Chloramine
Ans: B
41. The ratio of oxygen available to the oxyten required for stabilization of sewage is called ....
(A) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) (B) Relative stability (C) Bacterial Stability Factor (BSF) (D) Oxygen ion concentration
Ans: B
42. “Pneumoconiosis” is a disease caused by the inhalation of .......... dust.
(A) Uranium ore (B) Iron ore (C) Lime (D) Coal
Ans: D
43. Color test of water is done with an instrument called ….
(A) Turbidimeter (B) Tinctometer (C) Colorimeter (D) Electro-chemical cell
Ans: B
44. Main pollutant in the manufacturing of various superphosphates are the .......... compounds.
(A) Phosphorous (B) Sulphur (C) Fluorine (D) Chlorine
Ans: C
45. Reaction with ultraviolet light is responsible for the production of ....
(A) Nitrogen dioxide (B) Sulphure trioxide (C) Ozone (D) Smog
Ans: C
46. In Clean Development Mehanism (CDM), terminology, CER means .....
(A) Carbon Emmission Reduction (B) Certified Emission Reduction (C) Carbon Emmission Rating (D) Clean Environment Rating
Ans: B
47. Aerosol is ....
(A) Carbon particles of microscopic size (B) Dispersion of small solid/liquid particles in gaseous media
(C) Finely devided ash particles (D) Diffused liquid particles
Ans: B
48. Dissolved oxygen content in river / water streams is …..
(A) Maximum at midnight (B) Same throughout the day (C) Minimum at noon (D) Maximum at noon
Ans: D
49. Imhoff Cone is used to measure the total .......... content in sewage.
(A) Settleable solids (B) Inorganic solids (C) Non-settleable solilds (D) Organic solids
Ans: A
50. The .......... plume is chracteristic of neutral or slightly stable atmospheric conditions.
(A) Coning (B) Looping (C) Lofting (D) Fanning
Ans: A
51. Flame Ionisation Detector (FID) is used for the determination of .......... present in the polluted air.
(A) Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) (B) Hydrocarbons (HC) (C) Chlorine (D) Carbon monoxide (CO)
Ans: B
52. Which one of the following does not contain mercury ?
(A) Computer discs (B) Blinking light in sneakers (C) Fluorescent light bulbs (D) Clinical thermometer
Ans: A
53. If the waste materials contaminate source of drinking water, spreads which of the following disease ?
(A) Malaria (B) Typhoid (C) Scurvy (D) Anemia
Ans: C
54. Workers working in .......... industry are liable to suffer from silicosis disease.
(A) Sugar (B) Storage battery (C) Textile (D) Stone crushing
Ans: D
55. Which one of the following organisms presence is an indicator of sewage pollution ?
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Volvox (C) Spirogyra (D) Aerobacter aerogene
Ans: A
56. Which one of the following is not a used for dechlorination of water ?
(A) Sulpur dioxide (B) Sodium thiosulphate (C) Chloramines (D) Sodium sulphate
Ans: C
57. Dried sewage after treatment is used as .....
(A) Building material (B) Chemical for lowering BOD
(C) Fertilizer (D) Base material for paints
Ans: C
58. Bacteria which use CO2 as a source of carbon are known as .....
(A) Heterotrophic (B) Autotrophic (C) Anaerobic (D) Microbacteria
Ans: B
59. Large water projects that slow the flow of rivers may show many economic benefits but such projects in warm climates can also lead to …
(A) River blindness (B) Malaria (C) Valley fever (D) Schistosomiasis
Ans: D
60. Raoult’s law is based on the assumption of ....
(A) Idal solution behaviour for the liquid and vapour phase
(B) Ideal solution behaviour for the liquid phase
(C) Ideal gas behaviour for the vapour phase
(D) Ideal solution behaviour for the vapour phase
Ans: B
61. Which one of the following is not correct under the new licencing policy of the central government of hydrocarbon exploration - HELP ? (A) Bidders will be required to quote revenue share in their bids
(B) Uniform licensing system covering all hydrocarbons oil, gas, coal led, methane etc.
(C) Marketing and Pricing freedom for the crude oil and natural gas produced
(D) Royalty will be same for shallow water fields and deep water fields
Ans: D
62. Recent proposal to set up National Data Repository (NDR) by the central government is aimed to validate, store, maintain and reproduce high quality and reliable is based on ....
(A) Census data (B) Geo-scientific data (C) Archeological data (D) Anthropological data
Ans: B
63. Which one of the following is not ture about the Special Economic Zone (SEZ) ?
(A) Deemed to be foreign territory for the purposes of trade operations and duties & tariffs
(B) Any company set up with FDI has to be incorported under the Indian Companies Act with the Registrar of Companies for undertaking indian operations
(C) Domestic sale of finished products, by-products is permissible on payment of applicable custom duty.
(D) Only foreign companies in private / public / joint sector or state governments or its agencies can set up Special Economic Zone (SEZ)
Ans: D
64. The eTaal web portal is to provide ....
(A) Free download of music (B) e-Payment gateway (C) e-Commerce (D) e-transaction statistics
Ans: D
65. To be classified as ‘Large Landsend Unit’ the investment amount in plant and machinery should exceed ....
(A) Rupees Ten crore (B) Rupees Twenty crore (C) Rupees Fifty crore (D) Rupees Hundred crore
Ans: A
66. Which one of the following could be considered to be the next highest salt producing district of Gujarat after Kutch ?
(A) Bharuch (B) Bhavnagar (C) Surendrangar (D) Jamnagar
Ans: D
67. The irreversible reaction is simply the special case of the reversible reaction if ....
(A) The equilibrium constant is zero
(B) The equilibrium constant is one
(C) The fractional conversion of the reactant at equilibrium conditions is zero
(D) The concentration of the reactant at equilibrium conditions is zero
Ans: D
68. For the isothermal gas-phase reaction A ––® 3B, the fractional change in volume of the system between no conversion and complete conversion is ....
(A) 3
(B)2/3
(C) 1
(D) 2
Ans: C
69. Which one of the following is an example of autocatalytic reaction ?
(A) Photochemical reactions (B) Microbial fermentation reactions (C) Enzyme fermentation reactions (D) Synthesis of ammonia
Ans: B
70. The exit age distribution of fluid leaving a vessel is used ....
(A) To know the reaction rate constants (B) To know the activation energies of a reaction
(C) To study the reaction mechanism (D) To study the extent of non-ideal flow in the vessel
Ans: D
71. When a catalyst increaese the rate of a chemical reaction, the value of the rate constant ...
(A) Increases (B) Becomes infinite (C) Remains constant (D) Decreases
Ans: A
72. Throttling process ....
(A) Occurs at constant enthalpy (B) Increases the temperature of steam
(C) Produces shaft work (D) Decreases the temperature of an ideal gas
Ans: A
73. Effluent treatment cost in a chemical plant is categorised as the .......... cost.
(A) Capital (B) Overhead (C) Utilities (D) Fixed
Ans: C
74. Which one of the following is not a mathematical method for evaluation of profitability of a chemical process plant ?
(A) Discounted cash flow based on full life performance (B) Cash reserve (C) Rate of return on investment (D) Pay out period
Ans: B
75. Which one of the following is not a component of the working capital for a chemical process plant ?
(A) Minimum cash reserve (B) In process inventory (C) Product inventory (D) Storage facilities
Ans: D
76. A present sum of Rs. 100 at the end of one year, with half yearly rate of interest at 10% will be Rs. ..........
(A) 91 (B) 110 (C) 97 (D) 121
Ans: D
77. For a typical project, the cumulative cash flow is zero at the ...
(A) Start up (B) Break even point (C) End of the project life (D) End of the design stage
Ans: B
78. The total investment of a project is Rs. 10 lakhs and the annual profit is 1.5 lakhs. If the project life is 10 years, then the simple rate of return of investment is ....
(A) 10% (B) 1.5% (C) 15% (D) 150%
Ans: B
79. What is gross sales in laks of chemical plant having turn over ratio of unity and working capital of Rs. 8 lakhs, if the total capital investment is 50 lakhs.
(A) 42 (B) 21 (C) 32 (D) 48
Ans: A
80. For a project to be viable, return on investment (RoI) must always be .......... interest ratio.
(A) Equal to (B) Higher than (C) Lower than (D) No relation with interest ratio
Ans: B
81. Which one of the following is not a financial indicator ?
(A) Critical Path Method (CPM) (B) Net Present Value (NPV) (C) Return on Investment (RoI) (D) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
Ans: A
82. For a solid processing plant, the delivered equipment cost is Rs. 10 lakhs. Using lang multiplication method, the total capital investment in lakhs of rupees is ....
(A) 200 (B) 57 (C) 100 (D) 46
Ans: D
83. The Graetz number is concerned with the ....
(A) Heat transfer in turbulent flow (B) Heat transfer in laminar flow
(C) Absorption with chemical reaction (D) Mass transfer betwen a gas and a liquid
Ans: B
84. The economic life of a small chemical plant is ....
(A) Always equal to a large chemical plant (B) Usually much less than a large chemical plant
(C) Usually more than a large chemical plant (D) None of the above
Ans: B
85. Select the correct statement
(A) Payout period is not important for business decision making
(B) Payout period is affected by the variations in earnings after the recovery of the investment
(C) Payout period and economic life of a project are the same
(D) Payout period is the length of time over which the earning on a project equal the investment
Ans: D
86. Which one of the following method result in book values greater than those obtained with the straitght-line method ?
(A) Sinking fund method (B) Sum-of-the-years - digits method (C) Declining-balance method (D) Multiple straight-line method
Ans: A
87. Equilibrium state is ....
(A) Static (B) Dynamic (C) Sometimes static and sometimes dynamic (D) Neither dynamic nor static
Ans: B
88. For identical feed composition, flow rate, conversion and for all positive reaction orders, the ratio of volumes of the mixed reactor to the plug flow reactor is ....
(A) Always greater than one (B) Always lesser than one (C) Always one (D) Equal to the order of reaction
Ans: A
89. For any adiabatic process,
(A) DU = 0
(B) DU, Q and W all are zero
(C) W = 0
(D) Q = 0
Ans: D
90. Which one of the following statement is correct ?
(A) The mechanical work done by a system is always equal to ? pdv
(B) A process is irreversible as long as Ds for the system is greater than zero
(C) Pressure is an extensive property
(D) Work done by a gas during free expansion is infinite
Ans: B
91. The latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2257 KJ/Kg at 100° C. The critical temperature of water is 647.1 K. The latent heat of vaporisation of water at 647.1 K is qual to ....
(A) 3915.6 KJ/Kg (B) 0 KJ/Kg
(C) 1301 KJ/Kg (D) 2257 KJ/Kg
Ans: B
92. Biotechnology can be a powerful tool for environmental management. Research is being done to use biotechnology to help clean .......... (A) Oil pollution in water (B) Rivers (C) Smog (D) Pollution in the air
Ans: A
93. What is the result when industrial chemicals combine with condensing water vapour ?
(A) Acid rain (B) Global warming (C) Base rain (D) Green house effect
Ans: A
94. The use of chlorine to bleach paper has been crititicised as being highly polluting, but what environmental drawback does “Totally chlorine-free” paper have because .....
(A) It can only be made from certain types of trees
(B) It takes twice as much water to make it
(C) It uses different chemicals, but they create similar levels of pollution
(D) It can’t be made using recycled paper
Ans: D
95. The Ganga Action Plan (GAP) - a project to clean up the pollution waters of the Ganga - Plans to intercept and divert municipal sewage falling in to river from 25 large urban conglomerates in three states whose names are .....
(A) Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana (B) Orissa, Bihar and West Bengal
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab (D) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal
Ans: D
96. Which of the following item is not recyclable ?
(A) Plastic bags (B) Glass bottles (C) Old medicines (D) News paper
Ans: A
97. Which one of the most common non-commercial biological fuel is in a large number of developing countries ?
(A) Fuelwood (B) Crop residue (C) Animal dung (D) Coal
Ans: A
98. The nucleus of an atom of radioactive I-131 used in thyroid imaging, which contains ....
(A) 53 electrons and 78 neutrons (B) 53 neutrons and 78 protons
(C) 53 protons and 75 neutrons (D) 53 protons and 78 neutrons
Ans: C
99. Which one of the following is not a biomass ?
(A) Sewage (B) Plastic waste (C) Agriculture waste (D) Garbage
Ans: B
100. Which one of the following is the primary source of food for marine life ?
(A) Zooplankton (B) Grass (C) Phytoplankton (D) Seaweed
Ans: C
(A) Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) (B) Hydrocarbons (HC) (C) Chlorine (D) Carbon monoxide (CO)
Ans: B
52. Which one of the following does not contain mercury ?
(A) Computer discs (B) Blinking light in sneakers (C) Fluorescent light bulbs (D) Clinical thermometer
Ans: A
53. If the waste materials contaminate source of drinking water, spreads which of the following disease ?
(A) Malaria (B) Typhoid (C) Scurvy (D) Anemia
Ans: C
54. Workers working in .......... industry are liable to suffer from silicosis disease.
(A) Sugar (B) Storage battery (C) Textile (D) Stone crushing
Ans: D
55. Which one of the following organisms presence is an indicator of sewage pollution ?
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Volvox (C) Spirogyra (D) Aerobacter aerogene
Ans: A
56. Which one of the following is not a used for dechlorination of water ?
(A) Sulpur dioxide (B) Sodium thiosulphate (C) Chloramines (D) Sodium sulphate
Ans: C
57. Dried sewage after treatment is used as .....
(A) Building material (B) Chemical for lowering BOD
(C) Fertilizer (D) Base material for paints
Ans: C
58. Bacteria which use CO2 as a source of carbon are known as .....
(A) Heterotrophic (B) Autotrophic (C) Anaerobic (D) Microbacteria
Ans: B
59. Large water projects that slow the flow of rivers may show many economic benefits but such projects in warm climates can also lead to …
(A) River blindness (B) Malaria (C) Valley fever (D) Schistosomiasis
Ans: D
60. Raoult’s law is based on the assumption of ....
(A) Idal solution behaviour for the liquid and vapour phase
(B) Ideal solution behaviour for the liquid phase
(C) Ideal gas behaviour for the vapour phase
(D) Ideal solution behaviour for the vapour phase
Ans: B
61. Which one of the following is not correct under the new licencing policy of the central government of hydrocarbon exploration - HELP ? (A) Bidders will be required to quote revenue share in their bids
(B) Uniform licensing system covering all hydrocarbons oil, gas, coal led, methane etc.
(C) Marketing and Pricing freedom for the crude oil and natural gas produced
(D) Royalty will be same for shallow water fields and deep water fields
Ans: D
62. Recent proposal to set up National Data Repository (NDR) by the central government is aimed to validate, store, maintain and reproduce high quality and reliable is based on ....
(A) Census data (B) Geo-scientific data (C) Archeological data (D) Anthropological data
Ans: B
63. Which one of the following is not ture about the Special Economic Zone (SEZ) ?
(A) Deemed to be foreign territory for the purposes of trade operations and duties & tariffs
(B) Any company set up with FDI has to be incorported under the Indian Companies Act with the Registrar of Companies for undertaking indian operations
(C) Domestic sale of finished products, by-products is permissible on payment of applicable custom duty.
(D) Only foreign companies in private / public / joint sector or state governments or its agencies can set up Special Economic Zone (SEZ)
Ans: D
64. The eTaal web portal is to provide ....
(A) Free download of music (B) e-Payment gateway (C) e-Commerce (D) e-transaction statistics
Ans: D
65. To be classified as ‘Large Landsend Unit’ the investment amount in plant and machinery should exceed ....
(A) Rupees Ten crore (B) Rupees Twenty crore (C) Rupees Fifty crore (D) Rupees Hundred crore
Ans: A
66. Which one of the following could be considered to be the next highest salt producing district of Gujarat after Kutch ?
(A) Bharuch (B) Bhavnagar (C) Surendrangar (D) Jamnagar
Ans: D
67. The irreversible reaction is simply the special case of the reversible reaction if ....
(A) The equilibrium constant is zero
(B) The equilibrium constant is one
(C) The fractional conversion of the reactant at equilibrium conditions is zero
(D) The concentration of the reactant at equilibrium conditions is zero
Ans: D
68. For the isothermal gas-phase reaction A ––® 3B, the fractional change in volume of the system between no conversion and complete conversion is ....
(A) 3
(B)2/3
(C) 1
(D) 2
Ans: C
69. Which one of the following is an example of autocatalytic reaction ?
(A) Photochemical reactions (B) Microbial fermentation reactions (C) Enzyme fermentation reactions (D) Synthesis of ammonia
Ans: B
70. The exit age distribution of fluid leaving a vessel is used ....
(A) To know the reaction rate constants (B) To know the activation energies of a reaction
(C) To study the reaction mechanism (D) To study the extent of non-ideal flow in the vessel
Ans: D
71. When a catalyst increaese the rate of a chemical reaction, the value of the rate constant ...
(A) Increases (B) Becomes infinite (C) Remains constant (D) Decreases
Ans: A
72. Throttling process ....
(A) Occurs at constant enthalpy (B) Increases the temperature of steam
(C) Produces shaft work (D) Decreases the temperature of an ideal gas
Ans: A
73. Effluent treatment cost in a chemical plant is categorised as the .......... cost.
(A) Capital (B) Overhead (C) Utilities (D) Fixed
Ans: C
74. Which one of the following is not a mathematical method for evaluation of profitability of a chemical process plant ?
(A) Discounted cash flow based on full life performance (B) Cash reserve (C) Rate of return on investment (D) Pay out period
Ans: B
75. Which one of the following is not a component of the working capital for a chemical process plant ?
(A) Minimum cash reserve (B) In process inventory (C) Product inventory (D) Storage facilities
Ans: D
76. A present sum of Rs. 100 at the end of one year, with half yearly rate of interest at 10% will be Rs. ..........
(A) 91 (B) 110 (C) 97 (D) 121
Ans: D
77. For a typical project, the cumulative cash flow is zero at the ...
(A) Start up (B) Break even point (C) End of the project life (D) End of the design stage
Ans: B
78. The total investment of a project is Rs. 10 lakhs and the annual profit is 1.5 lakhs. If the project life is 10 years, then the simple rate of return of investment is ....
(A) 10% (B) 1.5% (C) 15% (D) 150%
Ans: B
79. What is gross sales in laks of chemical plant having turn over ratio of unity and working capital of Rs. 8 lakhs, if the total capital investment is 50 lakhs.
(A) 42 (B) 21 (C) 32 (D) 48
Ans: A
80. For a project to be viable, return on investment (RoI) must always be .......... interest ratio.
(A) Equal to (B) Higher than (C) Lower than (D) No relation with interest ratio
Ans: B
81. Which one of the following is not a financial indicator ?
(A) Critical Path Method (CPM) (B) Net Present Value (NPV) (C) Return on Investment (RoI) (D) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
Ans: A
82. For a solid processing plant, the delivered equipment cost is Rs. 10 lakhs. Using lang multiplication method, the total capital investment in lakhs of rupees is ....
(A) 200 (B) 57 (C) 100 (D) 46
Ans: D
83. The Graetz number is concerned with the ....
(A) Heat transfer in turbulent flow (B) Heat transfer in laminar flow
(C) Absorption with chemical reaction (D) Mass transfer betwen a gas and a liquid
Ans: B
84. The economic life of a small chemical plant is ....
(A) Always equal to a large chemical plant (B) Usually much less than a large chemical plant
(C) Usually more than a large chemical plant (D) None of the above
Ans: B
85. Select the correct statement
(A) Payout period is not important for business decision making
(B) Payout period is affected by the variations in earnings after the recovery of the investment
(C) Payout period and economic life of a project are the same
(D) Payout period is the length of time over which the earning on a project equal the investment
Ans: D
86. Which one of the following method result in book values greater than those obtained with the straitght-line method ?
(A) Sinking fund method (B) Sum-of-the-years - digits method (C) Declining-balance method (D) Multiple straight-line method
Ans: A
87. Equilibrium state is ....
(A) Static (B) Dynamic (C) Sometimes static and sometimes dynamic (D) Neither dynamic nor static
Ans: B
88. For identical feed composition, flow rate, conversion and for all positive reaction orders, the ratio of volumes of the mixed reactor to the plug flow reactor is ....
(A) Always greater than one (B) Always lesser than one (C) Always one (D) Equal to the order of reaction
Ans: A
89. For any adiabatic process,
(A) DU = 0
(B) DU, Q and W all are zero
(C) W = 0
(D) Q = 0
Ans: D
90. Which one of the following statement is correct ?
(A) The mechanical work done by a system is always equal to ? pdv
(B) A process is irreversible as long as Ds for the system is greater than zero
(C) Pressure is an extensive property
(D) Work done by a gas during free expansion is infinite
Ans: B
91. The latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2257 KJ/Kg at 100° C. The critical temperature of water is 647.1 K. The latent heat of vaporisation of water at 647.1 K is qual to ....
(A) 3915.6 KJ/Kg (B) 0 KJ/Kg
(C) 1301 KJ/Kg (D) 2257 KJ/Kg
Ans: B
92. Biotechnology can be a powerful tool for environmental management. Research is being done to use biotechnology to help clean .......... (A) Oil pollution in water (B) Rivers (C) Smog (D) Pollution in the air
Ans: A
93. What is the result when industrial chemicals combine with condensing water vapour ?
(A) Acid rain (B) Global warming (C) Base rain (D) Green house effect
Ans: A
94. The use of chlorine to bleach paper has been crititicised as being highly polluting, but what environmental drawback does “Totally chlorine-free” paper have because .....
(A) It can only be made from certain types of trees
(B) It takes twice as much water to make it
(C) It uses different chemicals, but they create similar levels of pollution
(D) It can’t be made using recycled paper
Ans: D
95. The Ganga Action Plan (GAP) - a project to clean up the pollution waters of the Ganga - Plans to intercept and divert municipal sewage falling in to river from 25 large urban conglomerates in three states whose names are .....
(A) Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana (B) Orissa, Bihar and West Bengal
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab (D) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal
Ans: D
96. Which of the following item is not recyclable ?
(A) Plastic bags (B) Glass bottles (C) Old medicines (D) News paper
Ans: A
97. Which one of the most common non-commercial biological fuel is in a large number of developing countries ?
(A) Fuelwood (B) Crop residue (C) Animal dung (D) Coal
Ans: A
98. The nucleus of an atom of radioactive I-131 used in thyroid imaging, which contains ....
(A) 53 electrons and 78 neutrons (B) 53 neutrons and 78 protons
(C) 53 protons and 75 neutrons (D) 53 protons and 78 neutrons
Ans: C
99. Which one of the following is not a biomass ?
(A) Sewage (B) Plastic waste (C) Agriculture waste (D) Garbage
Ans: B
100. Which one of the following is the primary source of food for marine life ?
(A) Zooplankton (B) Grass (C) Phytoplankton (D) Seaweed
Ans: C