ANALYST-CUM-PROGRAMMER- PAGE 1
ANALYST-CUM-PROGRAMMER- PAGE 1 MCQs
1. Structured charts are developed after
1. Designing
2. Coding
3. Requirement gathering
4. Requirement analysis
Ans: 1
2. Out of following which comes under requirement specification
1. Functional implementation
2. Temporary Data collection
3. User feedback about project
4. Data flow models
Ans: 4
3. The model in which system development is broken down into a number of sequential sections or stages represented by boxes, with each stage being completed before work starts on the following one. The outputs from one stage are used as inputs to the next.
1. Spiral model
2. Waterfall model
3. Structured model
4. None of these
Ans: 2
4. The spiral model is advantageous than waterfall model
1. When the requirements of the system are well understood by the users
2. When the requirements are not well formed or understood by the users
3. When the product comes after one stage easily
4. When all the functional requirements are available after requirement analysis
Ans: 2
5. Cost-Benefit Analysis is performed during
1. Analysis phase
2. Design phase
3. Feasibility study phase
4. Implementation phase
Ans: 3
6. Project risk factor is considered in
1. Spiral model
2. Waterfall model
3. Prototyping model
4. Iterative enhancement model
Ans: 1
7. A software project classifies system entities, their activities and relationships. The classification and abstraction of system entities is important. .....................methodology most clearly shows the classification and abstraction of entities in the system
1. Prototyping Model
2. Data Flow Model
3. RAD model
4. None of these
Ans: 4
8. In unit testing, interface testing is performed to assess
1. Efficiency
2. Behavior
3. Functional Independence
4. Internal logic of code
Ans: 3
9. Which of following is NOT defined in a good software requirement specification (SRS) document
1. Functional requirement
2. Non Functional requirement
3. Goals of Implementation
4. Algorithms for software Implementation
Ans: 4
10. Which of the following is not regression test case?
1. A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
2. Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
3. Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
4. Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function
Ans: 4
11. After Development phase, a document is prepared
1. Program specification
2. System specification
3. Design specification
4. None of these
Ans: 2
12. During the planning phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC), the ____ helps to define the scope of the problem.
1. critical path method (CPM) chart
2. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart
3. proof of concept prototype
4. context diagram
Ans: 4
13. Clients play what role in the development of a new system?
1. Develop the project plan
2. Define the business processes
3. Fund the project
4. Lead the project team
Ans: 3
14. Questionnaires can be useful in information gathering when users ____.
1. are widely distributed geographically
2. need prompting to respond to questions
3. are not well-informed
4. do not have time for interviews
Ans: 1
15. ____ requirements are based on the procedures and rules that the organization uses to run its business.
1. Functional
2. Logical
3. Physical
4. None of these
Ans: 1
16. The first item to be reviewed during a structured walkthrough is the documentation that was developed as part of the ____ phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC).
1. design
2. analysis
3. planning
4. implementation
Ans: 2
17. Error report is an example of
1. Process
2. Output process
3. Input process
4. None of these
Ans: 2
18. An external entity in the system is
1. Unit outside the system and controllable by system analyst
2. External unit which will be designed
3. A unit which is not shown in DFD
4. A unit outside the system and works completely independent manner
Ans: 2
19. The controlling factor which does not governs the software maintainability
1. use of standardized programming languages
2. inefficient maintenance team taking much time
3. standardized structure of the documentation
4. availability of test cases
Ans: 2
20. The code used for the validation purpose is known
1. Debugging code
2. Self-checking code
3. Sequence code
4. Group classification code
Ans: 2
21. Feasibility checking is the step performed
1. Before requirements specifications are drawn up
2. during the period when requirements specifications are drawn up
3. After all requirements specifications are drawn up
4. at any time
Ans: 1
22. What is incorrect about DFDs
1. process models have as many level 1 diagrams as there are processes on the level 0 diagram
2. every process in the level 1 DFD would be decomposed into its own level 1 DFD
3. The purpose of the level 0 DFD is to show all the major high-level processes of the system and how they are interrelated
4. level 1 DFD shows how level 0 processes operates in greater detail
Ans: 2
23. Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are
1. people, performance, payoff, product
2. people, product, performance, process
3. people, product, process, project
4. people, process, payoff, product
Ans: 3
24. The first step in project planning is to
1. determine the budget
2. select a team organizational model.
3. determine the project constraints.
4. establish the objectives and scope
Ans: 4
25. The application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.
1. Software quality control
2. Software project management
3. Software process management
4. Software project planning
Ans: 2
26. Which of the following is a tool of time management for software development
1. Project network diagrams
2. Gantt charts
3. Critical-path analyses
4. All of these
Ans: 2
27. What information is not essentially required in a project progress report
1. Reporting period to which it refers
2. Days taken and cost to complete the report
3. Authors of the report
4. Date of submission
Ans: 2
28. Which of following is not the aim of project progress report
1. Provide an overview of project’s progress up to date
2. To keep it as a document for customer satisfaction
3. Ensure that the key stakeholders are regularly informed
4. Inform the key stakeholders about issues that require immediate action or resolution
Ans: 2
29. Objectives of risk management do not include
1. Minimize the effort in software coding
2. Minimize adverse impacts to project scope, cost, and schedule
3. Maximize opportunities to improve the project’s objectives with lower cost, shorter schedules, enhanced scope and higher quality
4. Minimize management by crisis
Ans: 1
30. Which of the following is not an information gathering technique for risk identification?
1. Brain Storming
2. Risk Calculator
3. Interviewing
4. SWOT Analysis
Ans: 2
31. Which is not a suitable difference in qualitative and quantitative risk analysis?
1. Qualitative analysis assesses the likelihood and impact of identified risks to determine whereas quantitative analysis is a way of numerically estimating the probability that a project will meet its cost and time objectives.
2. Quantitative risk analysis involves statistical techniques whereas qualitative analysis is found using impact matrix.
3. Qualitative risk analysis generally follows qualitative analysis.
4. None of these
Ans: 4
32. Which statement is false?
1. Organizations that achieve high levels of maturity in the people management area have a higher likelihood of implementing effective software engineering practices.
2. The software developer and analyst must meet to define product objectives and scope alone.
3. Without information of technical and management constraints, it is impossible to define accurate estimates of the cost and risk.
4. Umbrella activities are independent of any one framework activity and occur throughout the process
Ans: 2
33. Which is not the meaning of W’s W5HH
1. Why is the system being developed?
2. Who is responsible for a function?
3. What will be done, by when?
4. Where the organizational hierarchy plays its role?
Ans: 4
34. Which is not a quality metric?
1. Maintainability
2. Integrity
3. Usability
4. Controllability
Ans: 4
35. Which is not a reusable software resource from the following
1. Off-the-shelf components
2. Full-experience components
3. Environmental components
4. Partial-experience components
Ans: 3
36. Which of the following is not a good and reliable cost and effort estimate
1. Delay estimation until late in the project
2. Ask from customer about his budget
3. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
4. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
Ans: 2
37. Not a basic function of automated estimation
1. Selecting project activities
2. Predicting software effort
3. Predicting software cost
4. Maintenance plan creation
Ans: 4
38. Which of the following is not a general risk component
1. Performance risk
2. Cost risk
3. Support risk
4. Payment Risk
Ans: 4
39. Which of the following is not a common step to mitigate the risk
1. Train project teams so that they do not take risk
2. Meet with current staff to determine causes for turnover
3. Mitigate those causes that are under our control before the project starts
4. Once the project commences, assume turnover will occur and develop techniques to ensure continuity when people leave
Ans: 1
40. Which of the following is not generally a reason for late project delivery
1. An unrealistic deadline established by someone outside the software development group and forced on managers and practitioner's within the group
2. Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
3. Customer not releasing payment
4. An honest underestimate of the amount of effort and/or the number ofresources that will be required to do the job
Ans: 3
41. ______________________is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks
1. Software project scheduling
2. Software project management
3. Software planning
4. Software effort estimation
Ans: 1
42. Issues guiding software project scheduling
1. Interdependency
2. Time allocation
3. Both Interdependency & Time Allocation
4. None of these
Ans: 3
43. Reliable decomposition technique under software project estimation is
1. Process based estimation
2. Software sizing
3. Problem based estimation
4. All of these
Ans: 4
44. The correct order of earned value calculation steps is i. Estimate effort for work planned ii. budgeted cost of work scheduled iii. Estimate budget for work performed
1. i-ii-iii
2. ii-i-iii
3. iii-i-ii
4. ii-iii-i
Ans: 2
45. The auditing and reporting functions of management are part of
1. Cost of quality
2. Quality control
3. Quality assurance
4. Quality evaluation
Ans: 3
46. Which of the following is not a fundamental source of change
1. New business or market conditions dictate changes in product requirements
2. New customer needs demand modification
3. Problems in the organization
4. Commitment to other customer
Ans: 4
47. ________________combines procedures and tools to manage different up-gradations of configuration objects that are created during the software process
1. Maintenance schedule
2. Version control
3. Evolutionary design
4. Data flow model
Ans: 2
48. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
1. Product risk
2. Project risk
3. Business risk
4. Programming risk
Ans: 1
49. Software interoperability is:
1. The ability of a software system to work on different hardware platforms
2. The ability of a software system to work under different operating systems
3. The ability of a software system to exchange information with other software systems and to use the exchanged information
4. The ability to replace a software system with another software system that has similar functionality
Ans: 3
50. Cyclomatic Complexity is :
1. number of operands in program
2. number of decision points +1
3. number of operators in program
4. None of these
Ans: 2
1. Designing
2. Coding
3. Requirement gathering
4. Requirement analysis
Ans: 1
2. Out of following which comes under requirement specification
1. Functional implementation
2. Temporary Data collection
3. User feedback about project
4. Data flow models
Ans: 4
3. The model in which system development is broken down into a number of sequential sections or stages represented by boxes, with each stage being completed before work starts on the following one. The outputs from one stage are used as inputs to the next.
1. Spiral model
2. Waterfall model
3. Structured model
4. None of these
Ans: 2
4. The spiral model is advantageous than waterfall model
1. When the requirements of the system are well understood by the users
2. When the requirements are not well formed or understood by the users
3. When the product comes after one stage easily
4. When all the functional requirements are available after requirement analysis
Ans: 2
5. Cost-Benefit Analysis is performed during
1. Analysis phase
2. Design phase
3. Feasibility study phase
4. Implementation phase
Ans: 3
6. Project risk factor is considered in
1. Spiral model
2. Waterfall model
3. Prototyping model
4. Iterative enhancement model
Ans: 1
7. A software project classifies system entities, their activities and relationships. The classification and abstraction of system entities is important. .....................methodology most clearly shows the classification and abstraction of entities in the system
1. Prototyping Model
2. Data Flow Model
3. RAD model
4. None of these
Ans: 4
8. In unit testing, interface testing is performed to assess
1. Efficiency
2. Behavior
3. Functional Independence
4. Internal logic of code
Ans: 3
9. Which of following is NOT defined in a good software requirement specification (SRS) document
1. Functional requirement
2. Non Functional requirement
3. Goals of Implementation
4. Algorithms for software Implementation
Ans: 4
10. Which of the following is not regression test case?
1. A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
2. Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
3. Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
4. Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function
Ans: 4
11. After Development phase, a document is prepared
1. Program specification
2. System specification
3. Design specification
4. None of these
Ans: 2
12. During the planning phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC), the ____ helps to define the scope of the problem.
1. critical path method (CPM) chart
2. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart
3. proof of concept prototype
4. context diagram
Ans: 4
13. Clients play what role in the development of a new system?
1. Develop the project plan
2. Define the business processes
3. Fund the project
4. Lead the project team
Ans: 3
14. Questionnaires can be useful in information gathering when users ____.
1. are widely distributed geographically
2. need prompting to respond to questions
3. are not well-informed
4. do not have time for interviews
Ans: 1
15. ____ requirements are based on the procedures and rules that the organization uses to run its business.
1. Functional
2. Logical
3. Physical
4. None of these
Ans: 1
16. The first item to be reviewed during a structured walkthrough is the documentation that was developed as part of the ____ phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC).
1. design
2. analysis
3. planning
4. implementation
Ans: 2
17. Error report is an example of
1. Process
2. Output process
3. Input process
4. None of these
Ans: 2
18. An external entity in the system is
1. Unit outside the system and controllable by system analyst
2. External unit which will be designed
3. A unit which is not shown in DFD
4. A unit outside the system and works completely independent manner
Ans: 2
19. The controlling factor which does not governs the software maintainability
1. use of standardized programming languages
2. inefficient maintenance team taking much time
3. standardized structure of the documentation
4. availability of test cases
Ans: 2
20. The code used for the validation purpose is known
1. Debugging code
2. Self-checking code
3. Sequence code
4. Group classification code
Ans: 2
21. Feasibility checking is the step performed
1. Before requirements specifications are drawn up
2. during the period when requirements specifications are drawn up
3. After all requirements specifications are drawn up
4. at any time
Ans: 1
22. What is incorrect about DFDs
1. process models have as many level 1 diagrams as there are processes on the level 0 diagram
2. every process in the level 1 DFD would be decomposed into its own level 1 DFD
3. The purpose of the level 0 DFD is to show all the major high-level processes of the system and how they are interrelated
4. level 1 DFD shows how level 0 processes operates in greater detail
Ans: 2
23. Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are
1. people, performance, payoff, product
2. people, product, performance, process
3. people, product, process, project
4. people, process, payoff, product
Ans: 3
24. The first step in project planning is to
1. determine the budget
2. select a team organizational model.
3. determine the project constraints.
4. establish the objectives and scope
Ans: 4
25. The application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.
1. Software quality control
2. Software project management
3. Software process management
4. Software project planning
Ans: 2
26. Which of the following is a tool of time management for software development
1. Project network diagrams
2. Gantt charts
3. Critical-path analyses
4. All of these
Ans: 2
27. What information is not essentially required in a project progress report
1. Reporting period to which it refers
2. Days taken and cost to complete the report
3. Authors of the report
4. Date of submission
Ans: 2
28. Which of following is not the aim of project progress report
1. Provide an overview of project’s progress up to date
2. To keep it as a document for customer satisfaction
3. Ensure that the key stakeholders are regularly informed
4. Inform the key stakeholders about issues that require immediate action or resolution
Ans: 2
29. Objectives of risk management do not include
1. Minimize the effort in software coding
2. Minimize adverse impacts to project scope, cost, and schedule
3. Maximize opportunities to improve the project’s objectives with lower cost, shorter schedules, enhanced scope and higher quality
4. Minimize management by crisis
Ans: 1
30. Which of the following is not an information gathering technique for risk identification?
1. Brain Storming
2. Risk Calculator
3. Interviewing
4. SWOT Analysis
Ans: 2
31. Which is not a suitable difference in qualitative and quantitative risk analysis?
1. Qualitative analysis assesses the likelihood and impact of identified risks to determine whereas quantitative analysis is a way of numerically estimating the probability that a project will meet its cost and time objectives.
2. Quantitative risk analysis involves statistical techniques whereas qualitative analysis is found using impact matrix.
3. Qualitative risk analysis generally follows qualitative analysis.
4. None of these
Ans: 4
32. Which statement is false?
1. Organizations that achieve high levels of maturity in the people management area have a higher likelihood of implementing effective software engineering practices.
2. The software developer and analyst must meet to define product objectives and scope alone.
3. Without information of technical and management constraints, it is impossible to define accurate estimates of the cost and risk.
4. Umbrella activities are independent of any one framework activity and occur throughout the process
Ans: 2
33. Which is not the meaning of W’s W5HH
1. Why is the system being developed?
2. Who is responsible for a function?
3. What will be done, by when?
4. Where the organizational hierarchy plays its role?
Ans: 4
34. Which is not a quality metric?
1. Maintainability
2. Integrity
3. Usability
4. Controllability
Ans: 4
35. Which is not a reusable software resource from the following
1. Off-the-shelf components
2. Full-experience components
3. Environmental components
4. Partial-experience components
Ans: 3
36. Which of the following is not a good and reliable cost and effort estimate
1. Delay estimation until late in the project
2. Ask from customer about his budget
3. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
4. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
Ans: 2
37. Not a basic function of automated estimation
1. Selecting project activities
2. Predicting software effort
3. Predicting software cost
4. Maintenance plan creation
Ans: 4
38. Which of the following is not a general risk component
1. Performance risk
2. Cost risk
3. Support risk
4. Payment Risk
Ans: 4
39. Which of the following is not a common step to mitigate the risk
1. Train project teams so that they do not take risk
2. Meet with current staff to determine causes for turnover
3. Mitigate those causes that are under our control before the project starts
4. Once the project commences, assume turnover will occur and develop techniques to ensure continuity when people leave
Ans: 1
40. Which of the following is not generally a reason for late project delivery
1. An unrealistic deadline established by someone outside the software development group and forced on managers and practitioner's within the group
2. Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
3. Customer not releasing payment
4. An honest underestimate of the amount of effort and/or the number ofresources that will be required to do the job
Ans: 3
41. ______________________is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks
1. Software project scheduling
2. Software project management
3. Software planning
4. Software effort estimation
Ans: 1
42. Issues guiding software project scheduling
1. Interdependency
2. Time allocation
3. Both Interdependency & Time Allocation
4. None of these
Ans: 3
43. Reliable decomposition technique under software project estimation is
1. Process based estimation
2. Software sizing
3. Problem based estimation
4. All of these
Ans: 4
44. The correct order of earned value calculation steps is i. Estimate effort for work planned ii. budgeted cost of work scheduled iii. Estimate budget for work performed
1. i-ii-iii
2. ii-i-iii
3. iii-i-ii
4. ii-iii-i
Ans: 2
45. The auditing and reporting functions of management are part of
1. Cost of quality
2. Quality control
3. Quality assurance
4. Quality evaluation
Ans: 3
46. Which of the following is not a fundamental source of change
1. New business or market conditions dictate changes in product requirements
2. New customer needs demand modification
3. Problems in the organization
4. Commitment to other customer
Ans: 4
47. ________________combines procedures and tools to manage different up-gradations of configuration objects that are created during the software process
1. Maintenance schedule
2. Version control
3. Evolutionary design
4. Data flow model
Ans: 2
48. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
1. Product risk
2. Project risk
3. Business risk
4. Programming risk
Ans: 1
49. Software interoperability is:
1. The ability of a software system to work on different hardware platforms
2. The ability of a software system to work under different operating systems
3. The ability of a software system to exchange information with other software systems and to use the exchanged information
4. The ability to replace a software system with another software system that has similar functionality
Ans: 3
50. Cyclomatic Complexity is :
1. number of operands in program
2. number of decision points +1
3. number of operators in program
4. None of these
Ans: 2
51. Grade of a product
1. Means the same thing as quality
2. can be used interchangeably with quality
3. Is the level of product or service
4. None of these
Ans: 3
52. The ..................... allows determination of early start, early finish, late start and late finish
1. Three point estimates
2. Flow chart technique
3. Precedence diagramming method
4. Critical Path method
Ans: 4
53. ______________is the degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing
1. Quality of development
2. Quality of conformance
3. Quality of design
4. None of the these
Ans: 2
54. Top-level problem solving and internal team coordination are managed by a team leader in which approach
1. Controlled centralized
2. Controlled decentralized
3. Democratic decentralized
4. Partial centralized
Ans: 1
55. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
1. Product competition
2. Technology change
3. Requirements change
4. None of the mentioned
Ans: 2
56. Which is a project attribute?
1. Resources
2. Efforts
3. User feedback
4. Hardware up-gradation
Ans: 1
57. Which is not an umbrella activity under software Engineering?
1. Software quality assurance
2. Software configuration management
3. Document preparation and production
4. Software Encryption
Ans: 4
58. Product quality is defined as:
1. Delivering a product with correct requirements
2. Delivering a product using correct development procedures
3. Delivering a product which is developed iteratively
4. Delivering a product using high quality procedures
Ans: 1
59. ______________________is a technique used to show the effects of change of one or more variables on an outcome.
1. Statistical Analysis
2. Sensitivity Analysis
3. Proportional Analysis
4. Quantitative Analysis
Ans: 2
60. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost
1. Algorithmic cost modeling
2. Expert judgment
3. Estimation by analogy
4. Parkinson’s Law
Ans: 1
61. Halstead's source code metrics are based on the number of
1. modules in the program
2. operands in the program
3. operators in the program
4. Both operator and operands in the program
Ans: 4
62. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?
1. Empirical
2. Heuristic
3. Analytical
4. Critical
Ans: 4
63:-Which of the following key is related with referential integrity constraint?
A:-Primary key B:-Candidate key C:-Foreign key D:-Super key
Ans: C
64:-The SQL aggregate function that returns number of values in a given column is
A:-count( ) B:-count(*) C:-sum( ) D:-All of the above
Ans: A
65:-Which of the following construct returns true if a given tuple is not present in the subquery
A:-exists B:-not present C:-not exists D:-none of the above
Ans: C
66:-What will be the output of the following query? CREATE EmployeeView VIEW AS SELECT nothing FROM Employee WHERE ID < 100
A:-EmployeeView will be created with no columns
B:-EmployeeView will be created with column nothing
C:-Syntax error
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
67:-Consider a relation A with m rows and relation B with n rows. How many rows will be generated if A × B is performed?
A:-m B:-m + n C:-m - n D:-m * n
Ans: D
68:-________ is the statement which specifies when the trigger is to be executed.
A:-From B:-Where C:-When D:-None of the above
Ans: C
69:-Which of the following is true about Atomicity?
A:-Smallest unit of transaction B:-Either all of its operations are executed or none
C:-Atleast one of the operation should be executed D:-All of the above
Ans: B
70:-Which of the following differentiates Two-Phase Locking with Strict Two-Phase Locking in Concurrency control?
A:-Release locks after usage B:-Release locks at commit
C:-Cascading aborts D:-None of the above
Ans: B
71:-The middle layer of a three layer client/server architecture is called
A:-Presentation layer B:-Application layer
C:-Database layer D:-None of the above
Ans: B
72:-Which of the following element in CSS allows authors to use external style sheets in their pages?
A:-position B:-span C:-extern D:-link
Ans: D
73:-Which of the following object displays prompt dialog in JavaScript?
A:-alert B:-prompt C:-document D:-window
Ans: D
74:-A technology for locating information in an XML document is
A:-xPath B:-XSL C:-MathML D:-All of the above
Ans: A
75:-The method used in PHP to transfer binary data from client to server is
A:-GET B:-POST C:-Both 1 and 2 D:-None of the above
Ans: B
76:-The directive used to specify information needed by ASP.NET to process an ASPX file
A:-Page B:-Register C:-Import D:-Master
Ans: A
77:-Which object in AJAX applications manage asynchronous interaction with the server?
A:-HttpURLConnection B:-HttpRequest C:-XMLHttpRequest D:-All of the above
Ans: C
78:-Cross-Site Scripting attacks are normally initiated by
A:-Web Client B:-Web Server C:-Both 1 and 2 D:-None of the above
Ans: A
79:-Which of the following in ASP.NET is a data source control method?
A:-ExecuteReader B:-SqlDataReader C:-SqlCommand D:-SqlConnection
Ans: D
80:-Which of the following function is used to exit from a PHP Script?
A:-exit( ) B:-die( ) C:-both 1 and 2 D:-none of the above
Ans: C
81:-Which one among the following is a private IP address?
A:-11.0.0.1 B:-168.172.29.41 C:-172.15.24.33 D:-192.168.24.40
Ans: D
82:-Which layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer in the OSI model?
A:-Application B:-Host-to-Host C:-Internet D:-Network Access
Ans: B
83:-Which among the following describes the DHCP Discover message?
i. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast
ii. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol
iii. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol
iv. It does not use a layer 2 destination address
A:-i only B:-i and ii
C:-iii and iv D:-iv only
Ans: B
84:-Among the following IP address classes, which one provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?
A:-Class A B:-Class B C:-Class C D:-Class D
Ans: C
85:-You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
A:-Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
B:-Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
C:-Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
D:-Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
Ans: B
86:-You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
A:-32 B:-30 C:-8 D:-6
Ans: D
87:-The number of unique substitution boxes in DES after the 48 bit XOR operation are
A:-4 B:-6 C:-8 D:-12
Ans: C
88:-For `p=11` and `q=17`, choose `e=7`. Find the plain text for the Cipher text 11 using the RSA algorithm
A:-88 B:-111 C:-122 D:-143
Ans: A
89:-Which of the following is true about HTTP headers and connection management?
A:-All HTTP responses must either close a connection or include a Content-Length:header to signify to end of a HTTP response body B:-The Host : field in HTTP allows the same web server to server content for multiple domains
C:-When transferring many small Web objects, the only performance difference between persistent and non-persistent HTTP connections is related to connection establishment
D:-HTTP headers have a fixed size
Ans: B
90:-Which of the following about UNIX socket programming is true?
i. When a TCP sender calls close(), the network stack immediately sends a FIN packet to its peer
ii. send() on a TCP socket causes a sender to a generate a TCP/IP packet and send it out the appropriate network interface
iii. accept() returns when the receiver completes the three-way TCP handshake
iv. The return value of recv() specifies the number of bytes read from a socket, or if the socket was closed or an error was encountered A:-i only B:-i and ii C:-iii and iv D:-iv only
Ans: C
91:-COCOMO stands for
A:-Consumed Cost Model B:-Constructive Cost Model
C:-Common Control Model D:-Composition Cost Model
Ans: B
92:-Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document?
A:-Functional Requirement B:-Nonfunctional Requirement
C:-Goals of implementation D:-Algorithm for software implementation
Ans: D
93:-Software process and improvement are assessed by
A:-ISO 9000 B:-ISO 9001 C:-SPICE (ISO/IEC15504) D:-Both 2 and 3
Ans: D
94:-CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of
A:-Develop the software B:-Improve the software process
C:-Improve the testing process D:-All of the above
Ans: B
95:-Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of
A:-Acceptance testing B:-Integration testing C:-System testing D:-Unit testing
Ans: A
96:-Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a
A:-cause-effect graph
B:-dependence matrix
C:-structure chart
D:-SRS
Ans: B
97:-The tests that run every night during the project development or before a programmer checks in any changes to the global repository are normally characterized as
A:-Integration tests B:-Regression tests C:-Validation tests D:-System tests
Ans: B
98:-Which of the following reason is valid ones for choosing a top-down process?
A:-Developers can present a demo of the project to the management faster than using a bottom-up process
B:-A top-down process is more time consuming because of the unit tests
C:-In a top-down design, if an error is detected its always because a lower-level module is not meeting its specifications (because the higher-level ones are already been tested)
D:-A top-down process makes it possible to detect performance problems faster
Ans: A
99:-Consider the following statements
(i) Bottom-up testing is not an effective way to reveal architectural design flaws.
(ii) Top-down testing can be time-consuming, because you need to write stubs for many modules.
A:-Only (i) is true B:-Only (ii) is true
C:-Both (i) and (ii) are true D:-Both (i) and (ii) are false
Ans: C
100:-Consider the following statements
(i) When designing tests, if partitions are chosen perfectly, there is no point to testing boundary values near the edges of the partition.
(ii) Glass-box tests designed for one implementation are valid to use when testing another implementation.
A:-Only (i) is true
B:-Only (ii) is true
C:-Both (i) and (ii) are true
D:-Both (i) and (ii) are false
Ans: C
1. Means the same thing as quality
2. can be used interchangeably with quality
3. Is the level of product or service
4. None of these
Ans: 3
52. The ..................... allows determination of early start, early finish, late start and late finish
1. Three point estimates
2. Flow chart technique
3. Precedence diagramming method
4. Critical Path method
Ans: 4
53. ______________is the degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing
1. Quality of development
2. Quality of conformance
3. Quality of design
4. None of the these
Ans: 2
54. Top-level problem solving and internal team coordination are managed by a team leader in which approach
1. Controlled centralized
2. Controlled decentralized
3. Democratic decentralized
4. Partial centralized
Ans: 1
55. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
1. Product competition
2. Technology change
3. Requirements change
4. None of the mentioned
Ans: 2
56. Which is a project attribute?
1. Resources
2. Efforts
3. User feedback
4. Hardware up-gradation
Ans: 1
57. Which is not an umbrella activity under software Engineering?
1. Software quality assurance
2. Software configuration management
3. Document preparation and production
4. Software Encryption
Ans: 4
58. Product quality is defined as:
1. Delivering a product with correct requirements
2. Delivering a product using correct development procedures
3. Delivering a product which is developed iteratively
4. Delivering a product using high quality procedures
Ans: 1
59. ______________________is a technique used to show the effects of change of one or more variables on an outcome.
1. Statistical Analysis
2. Sensitivity Analysis
3. Proportional Analysis
4. Quantitative Analysis
Ans: 2
60. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost
1. Algorithmic cost modeling
2. Expert judgment
3. Estimation by analogy
4. Parkinson’s Law
Ans: 1
61. Halstead's source code metrics are based on the number of
1. modules in the program
2. operands in the program
3. operators in the program
4. Both operator and operands in the program
Ans: 4
62. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?
1. Empirical
2. Heuristic
3. Analytical
4. Critical
Ans: 4
63:-Which of the following key is related with referential integrity constraint?
A:-Primary key B:-Candidate key C:-Foreign key D:-Super key
Ans: C
64:-The SQL aggregate function that returns number of values in a given column is
A:-count( ) B:-count(*) C:-sum( ) D:-All of the above
Ans: A
65:-Which of the following construct returns true if a given tuple is not present in the subquery
A:-exists B:-not present C:-not exists D:-none of the above
Ans: C
66:-What will be the output of the following query? CREATE EmployeeView VIEW AS SELECT nothing FROM Employee WHERE ID < 100
A:-EmployeeView will be created with no columns
B:-EmployeeView will be created with column nothing
C:-Syntax error
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
67:-Consider a relation A with m rows and relation B with n rows. How many rows will be generated if A × B is performed?
A:-m B:-m + n C:-m - n D:-m * n
Ans: D
68:-________ is the statement which specifies when the trigger is to be executed.
A:-From B:-Where C:-When D:-None of the above
Ans: C
69:-Which of the following is true about Atomicity?
A:-Smallest unit of transaction B:-Either all of its operations are executed or none
C:-Atleast one of the operation should be executed D:-All of the above
Ans: B
70:-Which of the following differentiates Two-Phase Locking with Strict Two-Phase Locking in Concurrency control?
A:-Release locks after usage B:-Release locks at commit
C:-Cascading aborts D:-None of the above
Ans: B
71:-The middle layer of a three layer client/server architecture is called
A:-Presentation layer B:-Application layer
C:-Database layer D:-None of the above
Ans: B
72:-Which of the following element in CSS allows authors to use external style sheets in their pages?
A:-position B:-span C:-extern D:-link
Ans: D
73:-Which of the following object displays prompt dialog in JavaScript?
A:-alert B:-prompt C:-document D:-window
Ans: D
74:-A technology for locating information in an XML document is
A:-xPath B:-XSL C:-MathML D:-All of the above
Ans: A
75:-The method used in PHP to transfer binary data from client to server is
A:-GET B:-POST C:-Both 1 and 2 D:-None of the above
Ans: B
76:-The directive used to specify information needed by ASP.NET to process an ASPX file
A:-Page B:-Register C:-Import D:-Master
Ans: A
77:-Which object in AJAX applications manage asynchronous interaction with the server?
A:-HttpURLConnection B:-HttpRequest C:-XMLHttpRequest D:-All of the above
Ans: C
78:-Cross-Site Scripting attacks are normally initiated by
A:-Web Client B:-Web Server C:-Both 1 and 2 D:-None of the above
Ans: A
79:-Which of the following in ASP.NET is a data source control method?
A:-ExecuteReader B:-SqlDataReader C:-SqlCommand D:-SqlConnection
Ans: D
80:-Which of the following function is used to exit from a PHP Script?
A:-exit( ) B:-die( ) C:-both 1 and 2 D:-none of the above
Ans: C
81:-Which one among the following is a private IP address?
A:-11.0.0.1 B:-168.172.29.41 C:-172.15.24.33 D:-192.168.24.40
Ans: D
82:-Which layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer in the OSI model?
A:-Application B:-Host-to-Host C:-Internet D:-Network Access
Ans: B
83:-Which among the following describes the DHCP Discover message?
i. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast
ii. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol
iii. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol
iv. It does not use a layer 2 destination address
A:-i only B:-i and ii
C:-iii and iv D:-iv only
Ans: B
84:-Among the following IP address classes, which one provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?
A:-Class A B:-Class B C:-Class C D:-Class D
Ans: C
85:-You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
A:-Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
B:-Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
C:-Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
D:-Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
Ans: B
86:-You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
A:-32 B:-30 C:-8 D:-6
Ans: D
87:-The number of unique substitution boxes in DES after the 48 bit XOR operation are
A:-4 B:-6 C:-8 D:-12
Ans: C
88:-For `p=11` and `q=17`, choose `e=7`. Find the plain text for the Cipher text 11 using the RSA algorithm
A:-88 B:-111 C:-122 D:-143
Ans: A
89:-Which of the following is true about HTTP headers and connection management?
A:-All HTTP responses must either close a connection or include a Content-Length:header to signify to end of a HTTP response body B:-The Host : field in HTTP allows the same web server to server content for multiple domains
C:-When transferring many small Web objects, the only performance difference between persistent and non-persistent HTTP connections is related to connection establishment
D:-HTTP headers have a fixed size
Ans: B
90:-Which of the following about UNIX socket programming is true?
i. When a TCP sender calls close(), the network stack immediately sends a FIN packet to its peer
ii. send() on a TCP socket causes a sender to a generate a TCP/IP packet and send it out the appropriate network interface
iii. accept() returns when the receiver completes the three-way TCP handshake
iv. The return value of recv() specifies the number of bytes read from a socket, or if the socket was closed or an error was encountered A:-i only B:-i and ii C:-iii and iv D:-iv only
Ans: C
91:-COCOMO stands for
A:-Consumed Cost Model B:-Constructive Cost Model
C:-Common Control Model D:-Composition Cost Model
Ans: B
92:-Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document?
A:-Functional Requirement B:-Nonfunctional Requirement
C:-Goals of implementation D:-Algorithm for software implementation
Ans: D
93:-Software process and improvement are assessed by
A:-ISO 9000 B:-ISO 9001 C:-SPICE (ISO/IEC15504) D:-Both 2 and 3
Ans: D
94:-CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of
A:-Develop the software B:-Improve the software process
C:-Improve the testing process D:-All of the above
Ans: B
95:-Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of
A:-Acceptance testing B:-Integration testing C:-System testing D:-Unit testing
Ans: A
96:-Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a
A:-cause-effect graph
B:-dependence matrix
C:-structure chart
D:-SRS
Ans: B
97:-The tests that run every night during the project development or before a programmer checks in any changes to the global repository are normally characterized as
A:-Integration tests B:-Regression tests C:-Validation tests D:-System tests
Ans: B
98:-Which of the following reason is valid ones for choosing a top-down process?
A:-Developers can present a demo of the project to the management faster than using a bottom-up process
B:-A top-down process is more time consuming because of the unit tests
C:-In a top-down design, if an error is detected its always because a lower-level module is not meeting its specifications (because the higher-level ones are already been tested)
D:-A top-down process makes it possible to detect performance problems faster
Ans: A
99:-Consider the following statements
(i) Bottom-up testing is not an effective way to reveal architectural design flaws.
(ii) Top-down testing can be time-consuming, because you need to write stubs for many modules.
A:-Only (i) is true B:-Only (ii) is true
C:-Both (i) and (ii) are true D:-Both (i) and (ii) are false
Ans: C
100:-Consider the following statements
(i) When designing tests, if partitions are chosen perfectly, there is no point to testing boundary values near the edges of the partition.
(ii) Glass-box tests designed for one implementation are valid to use when testing another implementation.
A:-Only (i) is true
B:-Only (ii) is true
C:-Both (i) and (ii) are true
D:-Both (i) and (ii) are false
Ans: C